Want to unlock features that will help you study for CPA Auditing and Attestation and support ExamTopics? Show
We work hard to maintain the website and the database.
Contributor Access features are unlocked instantly after checkout. Over a year ago, the AICPA unexpectedly released a set of 140 CPA Exam questions to the public and then removed them a month later. The AICPA only released the correct answer, not the explanations. (If you want the answer explanations, we have them in our CPA test bank as part of NINJA MCQ (7,000+ CPA Exam Questions & 335+ CPA Simulations)… we can't post them here, or bad men will steal them.) They're worth a quick look … 10-15 minutes of your time. Study them … skim them … your choice. Just be sure to at least look at them before exam day.
AUD CPA Exam QuestionsAuditing and Attestation CPA Exam Questions AUD-1. Which of the following statements is correct concerning both an engagement to compile and an engagement to review a nonissuer's financial statements? A. The accountant expresses no assurance on the financial statements. AUD-2. A compilation of financial statements in accordance with Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services is limited to presenting A. Accounting data that conforms with a special purpose framework other than GAAP. AUD-3. According to rules issued under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, which of the following nonaudit services is an accounting firm permitted to provide for an issuer audit client without impairing the accounting firm's independence? A. Providing an expert opinion in order to advocate the client's interest in litigation. AUD-4. Before accepting an audit engagement, a CPA should evaluate whether conditions exist that raise questions as to the integrity of management. Which of the following conditions most likely would raise such questions? A. There are significant differences between the entity's forecasted financial statements and the financial statements to be audited. AUD-5. Which of the following factors most likely would cause a CPA not to accept a new audit engagement? A. Management reputation for failing to provide schedules to prior auditors on a timely basis. AUD-6. Which of the following factors most likely would cause an accountant not to accept an engagement to compile the financial statements of a nonissuer? A. A lack of segregation of duties in the entity's accounting and payroll departments. AUD-7. Which of the following statements would most likely appear in an auditor's engagement letter? A. Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets. AUD-8. Which of the following activities is not an element of a CPA firm's quality control system to be considered in establishing quality control policies and procedures? A. Deciding whether to accept or continue a client
relationship. AUD-9. The purpose of establishing quality control policies and procedures for deciding whether to accept or continue a client relationship is to A. Provide reasonable assurance that personnel are adequately
trained to fulfill their responsibilities. AUD-10. Which of the following is an element of a CPA firm's quality control policies and procedures applicable to the firm's accounting and auditing practice? A. Engagement performance. AUD-11. Which of the following is an element of a CPA firm's quality control policies and procedures applicable to the firm's auditing practice? A. Acceptance of a client relationship. AUD-12. Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform before the balance sheet? A. Confirm with client's lawyer that all litigation probable of assertion has been disclosed to the auditor. AUD-13. Which of the following factors most likely would be considered an inherent limitation to an entity's internal control? A. The ineffectiveness of the entity's audit committee. AUD-14. Which of the following factors most likely would heighten an auditor's concern about the risk of fraudulent financial reporting? A. The audit committee's approval of the initial selection of accounting principles. AUD-15. Which of the following characteristics most likely would heighten an auditor's concern about the risk of material misstatements arising from fraudulent financial reporting? A. Management displays a significant disregard for regulatory authorities. AUD-16. Which of the following circumstances most likely would cause an auditor to suspect that there are material misstatements in an entity's financial statements? A. There are unusual discrepancies between the entity's records and confirmation replies. AUD-17. Which of the following factors most likely would heighten an auditor's concern about the risk of material misstatement arising from the misappropriation of assets? A. There is a potential for bias in the preparation of accounting estimates. AUD-18. If the objective of an auditor's test of details is to detect the overstatement of sales, the auditor should trace transactions from the A. Sales journal to the shipping documents. AUD-19. When assessing an internal auditor's objectivity, an independent auditor should A. Perform tests of controls to determine whether significant internal control activities are properly maintained. AUD-20. Which of the following procedures would a CPA most likely include in planning a financial statement audit? A. Determine the extent of involvement of the client's internal auditors. 83% of CPA Candidates Can't Pass This Simple Quiz. Discover How Prepared You Really Are. AUD-21. In selecting an appropriate sample for a substantive test, the auditor most likely would stratify the population if the A. Auditor suspects that management fraud has occurred during the year. AUD-22. Which of the following sampling methods would an auditor use to estimate a numerical measurement of a population, such as the dollar value of inventory? A. Variable sampling. AUD-23. An auditor is selecting prenumbered purchase orders for testing an entity's internal control activities related to their proper approval before office equipment is ordered. The auditor is matching random numbers with the purchase order numbers to determine which purchase orders to inspect. If a random number matches a voided purchase order, the auditor ordinarily would replace the voided purchase order with another if the voided purchase order A. Represents office equipment ordered and never received. AUD-24. In assessing the tolerable rate of deviations of a test of controls that was performed using statistical sampling, an auditor should consider that A. Deviations from pertinent controls do not affect the risk of material misstatement in the accounting records. AUD-25. An auditor is using statistical sampling in testing whether cash disbursements were properly authorized. The sample results indicate that the sample rate of deviation plus the allowance for sampling risk exceeds the tolerable rate. Under these circumstances, the auditor most likely would reduce the A. Planned reliance on the prescribed control. AUD-26. An auditor decides to use the blank form of positive accounts receivable confirmation. The auditor should be aware that the blank form may be ineffective because A. All accounts do not have an equal opportunity to be selected for confirmation. AUD-27. Confirmation of accounts receivable that have been categorized initially by an auditor as “exceptions” most likely could be due to A. Customers who have credit or zero balances with the client. AUD-28. Which of the following procedures does a CPA usually perform when reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer? A. Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances. AUD-29. Which of the following procedures would an accountant least likely perform during an engagement to review the financial statements of a nonissuer? A. Make inquiries of management about actions taken at board of directors' meetings. AUD-30. In performing substantive tests regarding the granting of stock options to senior management of an issuer, an auditor most likely would A. Confirm with those members of management as to whether they are
actually option holders. AUD-31. In searching for unrecorded liabilities, an auditor most likely would examine the A. Cutoff bank statement for deposits recorded in
the books, but not by the bank. AUD-32. An audit client has a valid reason for requesting that a certain account receivable that the auditor has selected for confirmation not be confirmed. Under these circumstances, the auditor should A. Verify the account balance by inspecting the client's bank statements and cash receipt records. AUD-33. Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to obtain evidence about the occurrence of subsequent events? A. Verify inventory pledged under loan agreements by confirming the details with financial institutions. AUD-34. Which of the following procedures would an auditor generally perform regarding subsequent events? A. Inspect inventory items that were ordered before the year end but arrived after the year end. AUD-35. An auditor of a nonissuer may not issue a qualified opinion when A. The auditor lacks independence with respect to the entity. AUD-36. Mills, CPA, was engaged by a group of royalty recipients to apply agreed-upon procedures to financial data supplied by Modern Co. regarding Modern's written assertion about its compliance with contractual requirements to pay royalties. Mills' report on these agreed-upon procedures should A. Disclaimer of opinion about the fair presentation of Modern's financial statements. AUD-37. A CPA was engaged to calculate the rate of return on a specified investment according to an agreed-upon formula and verify that the resultant percentage agrees to the percentage in an identified schedule. The CPA's report on these agreed-upon procedures should contain A. An
opinion about the fairness of the agreed-upon procedures. AUD-38. During an engagement to compile the financial statements of a nonissuer, an accountant becomes aware that management had stated land at appraised value and that, if GAAP had been followed, both the land account and stockholders' equity would have been decreased by $1 million, a material amount. The accountant decides to modify the standard compilation report because management will not revise the financial statements. Under these circumstances, the accountant should A. Issue either an adverse opinion or a qualified opinion, depending on materiality, because of the departure from GAAP. AUD-39. An accountant has been engaged to compile a nonissuer's financial statements that contain several misapplications of accounting principles and unreasonable accounting estimates. Management is unwilling to revise the financial statements, and the accountant believes that modification of the standard compilation report is not adequate to communicate the deficiencies. Under these circumstances, the accountant should A. Disclaim an opinion on the financial statements and advise the board of directors that the financial statements should not be relied
upon. AUD-40. Which of the following matters is included in a typical comfort letter? A. Negative assurance on whether unaudited condensed financial information complies in form with the accounting requirements of the SEC. BEC CPA Exam QuestionsBusiness Environment and Concepts CPA Exam Questions BEC-1. A 20% target contribution margin is set for Duct, which is a new product with the following unit costs:
What is Duct's target selling price? A. $18.00 BEC-2. Below are data from the income statement of Brown, Inc:
What was Brown's cost of goods manufactured? A. $37,000 BEC-3. The expected selling price for a new product is $19.00. Management's goal is to obtain a 20% contribution margin on all sales. If the new product has variable selling and distribution costs of $3.00 per unit, what is the product's target variable manufacturing cost? A. $12.20 BEC-4. Smith Legal Services has offered to represent a plaintiff in a lawsuit for a retainer of $20,000 plus 40% of any award over $20,000. Smith expects to incur out-of-pocket expenditures of $15,000 in litigating the suit. Possible court awards with their associated probabilities are:
What is the expected value to Smith of the lawsuit? A. $25,900 BEC-5. Grant Co.'s sales budget shows the following projections for the year ending December 31:
Inventory at the beginning of the year was budgeted at 9,000 units. The quantity of finished goods inventory at the end of each quarter is to equal 30% of the next quarter's budgeted sales of units. What amount should the production budget show for units to be produced during the first quarter? A. 36,000 BEC-6. What term is used to represent unavoidable past costs that cannot be changed no matter what action is taken? A. Prime costs BEC-7. Spark Co. buys cordless phones for $125 each and sells them for $200 each. Spark pays a sales commission of $25 per phone sold and monthly fixed costs are $3,000. Assuming Spark desired a profit of 10% of sales, how many units must Spark sell? A. 600 BEC-8. A company that produces a single product using a continuous process had no work in process on April 1. During the month of April, 10,000 units were started and 9,000 completed units were transferred. The ending work-in-process inventory was complete as to materials and 50% complete as to conversion. The cost of direct materials was $114,000, and the cost of direct labor amounted to $38,000. Manufacturing overhead is assigned at the rate of 50% of direct materials. For the purpose of determining the cost of goods manufactured in April, what is the cost per equivalent whole unit? A. $23.22 BEC-9. Star Co. is a retail store specializing in contemporary furniture. The following information is taken from Star's June budget:
What amount should Star budget for cash disbursements for June purchases? A. $260,000 BEC-10. Which of the following is a major difference between the just-in-time (JIT) and traditional approaches to manufacturing? A. The JIT approach usually involves a large number of suppliers while traditional approaches usually involve only a small number of suppliers. BEC-11. Match Co. manufactures a product with the following costs per unit, based on a maximum plant capacity of 400,000 units per year:
Match has a ready market for all 400,000 units at a selling price of $200 each. Selling costs in this market consist of $10 per unit shipping and a fixed licensing fee of $50,000 per year. Reno Co. wishes to buy 5,000 of these units on a special order. There would be no shipping costs on this special order. What is the lowest price per unit at which Match should be willing to sell the 5,000 units to Reno? A. $110 BEC-12. Dawn Corp. uses a standard cost system. During the year, both the labor rate variance and the labor efficiency variance were unfavorable. Dawn wrote the variances off directly to cost of goods sold. If Dawn had allocated the variances to work in process, finished goods, and cost of goods sold instead, what would have been the effects on current ratio and net income?
A. Increases Increases BEC-13. The essence of responsibility accounting is A. Developing performance reports emphasizing costs and revenues that managers can control. BEC-14. A company sells DVD players for $200 per unit. The players have a unit variable cost of $160. The company estimates that it will sell one home entertainment system for every four DVD players sold. Home entertainment systems have a unit variable cost of $460 and sell for $600 per unit. The company's fixed costs are $90,000. Assuming that the sales mix estimate is correct, how many DVD players need to be sold for the company to break even? A. 300 BEC-15. Skytop Co., a nonprofit entity, is considering acquiring a machine for $80,000 that will produce uniform cash inflows of $25,000 for four years. Skytop evaluates capital projects using discounted cash flows at a cost of capital of 10% per year. Based upon the following table, what action should Skytop take regarding acquisition of the machine, and why?
A. Yes Net cash flow is $20,000 BEC-16. Which of the following statements that relate to capital budgeting is true? A. The impact of taxes on
capital budgeting will not make a difference in the decision to purchase new equipment. BEC-17. Roger Co. implemented activity-based costing in the current year. To select the appropriate driver for Cost Pool A, Roger performed regression analyses for two independent variables, Driver 1 and Driver 2, using monthly operating data. The monthly levels of Cost Pool A were the dependent variables in both regressions. Output results from the regression analyses were as follows:
At the budgeted production level for next month, the levels of Driver 1 and Driver 2 are expected to be 5,880 and 7,000, respectively. Based on this information, what is the budgeted amount for Cost Pool A for next month? A. $2,624 BEC-18. Gamma Co., a manufacturer of medical products, had a 10% return on assets and an asset turnover of 4:1. What was Gamma's profit margin on sales? A. 40.0% BEC-19. What is the process by which products and services of a business entity are measured and evaluated relative to the best possible levels of performance? A. Measuring the performance gap BEC-20. The following information pertains to Baxter Co:
What was Baxter's inventory turnover for the year? A. 1.0 BEC-21. How would the following ratios or measures be affected if a company-issued additional capital stock for cash?
A. Increase Increase BEC-22. Darv Co. had a current ratio of 3-to-1 and a quick ratio of 1-to-1. Current liabilities were $322,000. What was the total amount for inventory and prepaid expenses? A. $322,000 BEC-23. Which of the following is an essential element of the audit trail in an electronic data interchange (EDI) system? A. An integrated test facility that verifies the
accuracy of data. BEC-24. Carter Co. had the following items on its balance sheet at the end of the current year:
The amount of current liabilities at the end of the current year was $640,000. What is Carter's working capital at the end of the current year? A. $60,000 BEC-25. An issuer's board of directors would ordinarily participate in each of the following activities, except A. Establishing long-term strategy and objectives to which their information technology system
should be aligned. Source: AICPA FAR CPA Exam QuestionsFinancial Accounting and Reporting CPA Exam Questions FAR-1. Accrual accounting involves accruals and deferrals. Which of the following best describes accruals and deferrals? A. Accruals are concerned with expected future cash receipts and payments, while deferrals are concerned with past cash receipts and payments. FAR-2. During the current year, Cooley Co. had an unrealized gain of $100,000 on a debt investment classified as available-for-sale. Cooley's corporate tax rate is 25%. What amount of the gain should be included in Cooley's net income and other comprehensive income at the end of the current year?
A. $100,000 $0 FAR-3. During the year, Verity Co. purchased $200,000 of Otra Co. bonds at par and $50,000 of U.S. Treasury bills. Verity classified the Otra bonds as available-for-sale securities and the Treasury bills as cash equivalents. In Verity's statement of cash flows, what amount should it report as net cash used in investing activities? A. $0 FAR-4. Ace Co. issued 1,000 shares of its $10 par value common stock for $15 per share in cash. How should this transaction be reported in Ace's statement of cash flows for the year of issuance? A. $15,000 cash inflow from financing activities. FAR-5. Strut Co. has a payable to its parent, Plane Co. In which of the following balance sheets should this payable be reported separately?
FAR-6. The primary purpose of a not-for-profit organization's statement of activities is to provide relevant information to its A. Resource providers. FAR-7. Financial statements prepared by a voluntary health and welfare nongovernmental not-for-profit organization must report expenses by the following classification(s):
FAR-8. Zokro, a nongovernmental not-for-profit organization, uses the indirect method to prepare its statement of cash flows. In determining its net cash provided (used) by operating activities, Sokro must add back which of the following to the change in net assets? A. Purchase of equipment. FAR-9. Box, a nongovernmental not-for-profit organization, had the following transactions during the year:
What amount should be reported as net cash provided by financing activities in Box's statement of cash flows? A. $70,000 FAR-10. Toft Co. had 120,000 shares of common stock outstanding at January 1. On April 1, it issued 40,000 additional shares of common stock. Outstanding all year were 10,000 shares of nonconvertible preferred stock on which a dividend of $5 per share was declared during the year. Net income for the year was $480,000. What should Toft report as earnings per share for the year? A. $2.69 FAR-11. Swift Co. has identified three operating segments that may require separate disclosure in Swift's general purpose financial statements for the year ended December 31, year 2. Information for year 2 follows:
Which of Swift's segments are required to be separately disclosed in its December 31, year 2, financial statements? A. A and B only. FAR-12. Sussman Co. prepared cash-basis financial statements for the month ended January 31. A summary of Sussman's January activities follows:
By what amount will Sussman's cash-basis income for the month ended January 31 increase as a result of restating these activities to the accrual basis of accounting? A. $2,500 FAR-13. Bailey Co. changed the accounting for insurance expense from the cash basis to the accrual basis in the current year. In January of the prior year, Bailey recorded insurance expense of $240,000 for the cash purchase of a four-year insurance policy. How should Bailey report the insurance transaction in the current year's financial statements? A. As a $180,000 debit to prepaid insurance. FAR-14. Rune Co.'s checkbook balance on December 31, was $10,000. On that date, Rune held the following items in its safe: $4,000 check payable to Rune, postdated January 3, and not included in the December 31 checkbook balance, in collection of a sale made in December. $1,000 check payable to Rune, deposited December 15 and included in the December 31 checkbook balance, but returned by the bank on December 30 stamped “NSF”. The check was redeposited on January 2, and cleared on January 9. What amount should Rune report as cash in its December 31, balance sheet? A. $9,000 FAR-15. Mast Co. converted from the FIFO method for inventory valuation to the LIFO method for financial statement and tax purposes. During a period of inflation, would Mast's ending inventory and income tax payable using LIFO be higher or lower than FIFO?
FAR-16. Stone Co. had the following consignment transactions during December year 1:
No sales of consigned goods were made through December 31, year 1. What amount of consigned inventory should be included in Stone's December 31, year 1, balance sheet? A. $24,000 FAR-17. Cobb, Inc.'s inventory at May 1 consisted of 200 units at a total cost of $1,250. Cobb uses the periodic inventory method. Purchases for the month were as follows:
Cobb sold 10 units on May 14 for $120. What is Cobb's weighted average cost of goods sold for May? A. $60.20 FAR-18. Ultra Co. uses a periodic inventory system. The following are inventory transactions for the month of January:
Ultra uses the LIFO method to determine the value of its inventory. What amount should Ultra report as cost of goods sold on its income statement for the month of January? A. $710,000 FAR-19. Pine Co. purchased land for $450,000 as a factory site. An existing building on the site was razed before construction began. Additional information is as follows:
What amount should Pine capitalize as the cost of the completed factory building? A. $2,005,000 FAR-20. Smile, Inc. purchased a computer on May 1, for $12,000 with an estimated salvage value of $1,500 and a 3-year life. What is the depreciation expense for the year ended December 31, using the double-declining method of depreciation? A. $8,000 FAR-21. Hall Co. purchased a machine on January 1 at a cost of $140,000. The machine had an estimated useful life of eight years and a salvage value of $60,000. Hall chose to depreciate the machine using the double-declining balance method. What was the carrying amount of the machine in Hall's balance sheet at the end of its second year of operations? A. $60,000 FAR-22. Dodd Co.'s debt securities at December 31 included available-for-sale securities with a cost basis of $24,000 and a fair value of $30,000. Dodd's income tax rate was 20%. What amount of unrealized gain or loss should Dodd recognize in its income statement at December 31? A. $6,000 loss. FAR-23. Goll Co. has a 25% interest in the common stock of Rose Co. and an 18% interest in the common stock of Jave Co. Neither investment gives Goll the ability to exercise significant influence over either company's operating and financial policies. Which of the two investments should Goll account for using the equity method? A. Both Rose and Jave. FAR-24. Bay Co. incurred legal fees in defending its patent rights. These legal fees should be capitalized when the outcome of the litigation is
FAR-25. Corbet Co. purchased a copyright near the beginning of the current year from an author for $20,000. The legal life of the copyright is equivalent to the life of the author plus 50 years. Corbet expects to sell the book for five years. What amount should Corbet report as amortization expense related to the copyright at the end of the current year? A. $0 83% of CPA Candidates Can't Pass This Simple Quiz. Discover How Prepared You Really Are. FAR-26. The following information pertains to Dash Co.'s utility bills:
What is the amount that Dash should report as a liability in its June 30 balance sheet? A. $6,000 FAR-27. Under state law, Boca Co. may reimburse the state directly for actual unemployment claims or it may pay 3% of eligible gross wages. Boca believes that actual unemployment claims will be 2% of eligible gross wages, and has chosen to reimburse the state. Eligible gross wages are defined as the first $15,000 of gross wages paid to each employee. Boca had four employees, each of whom earned $20,000 during the year. What amount should Boca report as accrued liability for unemployment claims in its year-end balance sheet? A. $1,200 FAR-28. On July 1, year 7, Dean Co. issued, at a premium, bonds with a due date of July 1, year 12. Dean incorrectly used the straight-line method instead of the effective interest method to amortize the premium. How were the following amounts affected by the error at June 30, year 12?
FAR-29. On July 1, Alto Co. split its common stock 5 for 1 when the fair value was $100 per share. Prior to the split, Alto had 10,000 shares of $10 par value common stock issued and outstanding. After the split, the par value of the stock A. Remained at $10. FAR-30. Elan Co. has two employees. Each employee receives two weeks of paid vacation each year. Vacation rights accumulate. One employee, whose weekly salary is $600, took a two-week vacation during the year, but the other employee, who earns $800 per week, took no vacation during the year. In its year-end financial statements, what amount should Elan report as vacation liability and expense? A. $1,600 $1,200 FAR-31. Holt Co. discovered that in the prior year, it failed to report $40,000 of depreciation related to a newly constructed building. The depreciation was computed correctly for tax purposes. The tax rate for the current year was 20%. How should Holt report the correction of error in the current year? A. As an increase in accumulated depreciation of $32,000. FAR-32. Mill Co. reported pretax income of $152,500 for the year ended December 31. During the year-end audit, the external auditors discovered the following errors:
What amount should Mill report as the correct pretax income for the year ended December 31? A. $58,500 FAR-33. Arno Co. did not record a credit purchase of merchandise made prior to year end. However, the merchandise was correctly included in the year-end physical inventory. What effect did the omission of reporting the purchase of merchandise have on Arno's balance sheet at year end?
FAR-34. Prior to the issuance of its December 31 financial statements, Stark Co. was named as a defendant in a lawsuit arising from an event that occurred in October. Stark's legal counsel believes that it is reasonably possible that there will be an unfavorable outcome and that damages will range from $100,000 to $150,000. Which amount(s) should Stark accrue and/or disclose in its December 31 financial statements?
FAR-35. Dari, Inc. guaranteed the debt of a related party. In December, Dari learned that it is probable it will be required to pay between $150,000 and $200,000 within the next six months in satisfaction of its guarantee, but no amount within that range is more likely. What amount of contingent liability should Dari accrue in its December 31 balance sheet? A. $200,000 FAR-36. True Co. did not record an accrual for a probable loss from a lawsuit in its financial statements. Which of the following explanations for True's not accruing the probable loss is in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles? A. No reasonable estimate of the loss can be made. FAR-37. Which of the following financial instruments may be considered a derivative financial instrument? A. Option contract. FAR-38. Mentor Co., a U.S. corporation, owned 100% of a Swiss corporation. The Swiss franc is the functional currency. The remeasurement of Mentor's financial statements resulted in a $25,000 gain at year end. The translation of the financial statements resulted in a $40,000 gain at year end. What amount should Mentor recognize as foreign currency gain in its income statement? A. $0 FAR-39. Brill Co. made the following expenditures relating to Product X:
Production of Product X commenced when the patent was granted. What amount of the above costs should be expensed as research and development costs? A. $40,000 FAR-40. Aln Co. incurred the following expenses during the current period:
What is the total amount of research and development expenses incurred by Aln during the current period? A. $0 FAR-41. During year 2, Pipp Co. incurred the following costs to develop and produce a routine, low-risk computer software product:
In Pipp's December 31, year 2, balance sheet, what amount should be capitalized as software cost? A. $10,000 FAR-42. Which characteristic of information in the statistical tables included in a comprehensive annual financial report differentiates it from information contained in the financial statements?
FAR-43. The city of Cobb has two trust funds for the benefit of the city's library, trust fund A and trust fund B. Only the earnings from trust fund A can be expended and both the principal and interest from trust fund B can be expended. How should the city of Cobb report each trust fund?
FAR-44. The City of Windemere decided to construct several large windmills to generate electrical power. The construction was financed through a general residential property tax levy for the next ten years. Utility revenues are intended to offset all expenses associated with the windmills. The land for the windmills was donated to the city by a local farmer. The land from the farmer should be reported in which fund type? A. Special
revenue. FAR-45. In the statement of activities for a governmental entity, revenues such as charges for building permits, garbage collection, and dog licenses are reported as which of the following? A. Program revenues in the category “Capital Grants and Contributions.” FAR-46. The statement of activities in the government-wide financial statements includes which of the A. Separate columns for governmental activities, business-type activities and discretely presented component units. FAR-47. Best County's capital projects fund had the following receipts during the year:
What amount of revenues should Best County report in its capital projects fund at the end of the year? A. $75,000 FAR-48. Large City does not use the modified approach to account for roads. At the beginning of the current year, the city spent $800,000 on new roads. The roads have a 20-year useful life. What amount should Large City report as an expense related to the new roads in the statement of activities for the current year? A. $0 FAR-49. Zarr Town levied property taxes of $500,000, of which 1% is expected to be uncollectible. During the year, Zarr Town collected $450,000. What amount of property tax revenue should Zarr Town report in its government-wide statement of activities for the current year? A. $0 FAR-50. In the current year, Poplar City paid $5,000 interest and $20,000 principal on its outstanding general obligation bonds. The payment was made from a debt service fund using cash transferred earlier the same year from the general fund. How should the city report the expenditures?
REG CPA Exam QuestionsRegulation CPA Exam Questions REG-1. If a CPA recklessly departs from the standards of due care when conducting an audit, the CPA will be liable to third parties who are unknown to the CPA under the law of A. Strict liability. REG-2. Which of the following defenses is likely to be successful in a suit alleging negligence by a CPA? A. Due care. REG-3. Which of the following pairs of elements must a client prove to hold an accountant liable for common law fraud? A. Material misrepresentation and breach of contract. REG-4. To which of the following parties will a CPA be liable if the CPA fraudulently issues an unqualified opinion on a corporation's materially misstated financial statements?
REG-5. Which of the following transactions correctly illustrates the doctrine of substantial performance? A. Blair ordered a dozen blue chairs from Kyle, but Kyle delivered a dozen red chairs. REG-6. Which of the following circumstances generally will cause a discharge of contractual duties by operation of law? A. Novation. REG-7. Brown cosigned Royal's $50,000 note to State Bank. If Royal is later adjudicated mentally incompetent, what would be Brown's liability on the note? A. Liable to pay State on the due date of the note. REG-8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Federal Unemployment Tax Act? A. An employee, who resigns, regardless of cause, is eligible for unemployment benefits. REG-9. A partner in a general partnership is usually not entitled to which of the following? A. To participate in management. REG-10. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a shareholder’s right to inspect corporate books and records? The right A. Is absolute. REG-11. Parent gave securities with an adjusted basis of $10,000 and fair market value of $9,000 to a child. Later the child sold the securities for $7,000. What is the child's basis for the securities sold? A. $10,000 REG-12. In the current year, Vinton exchanged unimproved land for an apartment building. The land had a basis of $300,000, and a fair market value (FMV), of $420,000, and was encumbered by a $100,000 mortgage. The apartment building had an FMV of $550,000 and was encumbered by a $230,000 mortgage. Each party assumed the other's mortgage. What is Vinton's basis in the office building? A. $300,000 REG-13. Lemon owned 2,000 shares of Spectrol Corp. common stock that were purchased in year 1 at $10.50 per share. In year 4, Lemon received a 5% non-taxable dividend of Spectrol common stock. In year 5, the stock split 2-for-1. In the current year Lemon sold 800 shares. What is Lemon's basis in the 800 shares of stock sold? A. $4,000 REG-14. Decker, a 62-year-old single individual, sold his principal residence for the net amount of $500,000 after all selling expenses. Decker bought the house 15 years ago and occupied it until it was sold. On the date of sale, the house had a cost basis of $200,000. Within six months, Decker purchased a new house for $600,000. What amount of gain should Decker recognize from the sale of the residence? A. $0 REG-15. Vale is a 50% partner in Ball Partnership. Vale's tax basis in Ball on January 2, year 1, was $60,000. Ball did not have unrealized receivables, appreciated inventory, or properties that had been contributed by its partners. On December 31, year 1, Ball made a $10,000 nonliquidating cash distribution to each partner. The Ball Partnership income tax return reported the following items for year 1:
What total amount of gross income from Ball should be included in Vale's year 1 adjusted gross income? A. $6,000 REG-16. Aston and Becker are equal partners in AB Partnership. In the tax year, the ordinary income of the partnership is $20,000, and the partnership has a long-term capital gain of $12,000. Aston's basis in AB was $40,000, and he received distributions of $5,000 during the year. What is Aston's share of AB's ordinary income? A. $10,000 REG-17. Decker, an individual, owns 100% of Acre, an S corporation. At the beginning of the year, Decker’s basis in Acre was $25,000. Acre had ordinary income during the year in the amount of $10,000 and a long-term capital loss in the amount of $4,000. Decker has no other capital gains or losses during the year. What amount of the long-term capital loss may Decker deduct this year? A. $0 REG-18. West is single, has no dependents, and does not itemize. West provides the following information regarding his current-year’s return:
What is the amount of West's AMT tax preference items? A. $9,000 REG-19. Prime Corp. is an accrual-basis, calendar-year C corporation. Its current-year reported book income before federal income taxes was $300,000, which included $17,000 corporate bond interest income. A $20,000 expense for term life insurance premiums on corporate officers was incurred. Prime was the policy owner and beneficiary. What was Prime's current-year taxable income as reconciled on Prime's Schedule M-1, Reconciliation of Income (Loss) per Books With Income per Return, of Form 1120, U.S. Corporation Income Tax Return? A. $320,000 REG-20. Vital Corp. is an accrual-basis, calendar-year C corporation. Its year 2 reported book income before federal income taxes was $500,000. Included in that amount were the following items:
What should be the amount of Vital's year 2 taxable income as reconciled on Vital's Schedule M-1 of Form 1120, U.S. Corporation Income Tax Return? A. $500,000 REG-21. Press Corp. and Swank Corp. file a consolidated return. The companies had the following items of income and deductions for the current year:
What is Press and Swank's consolidated taxable income? A. $109,000 REG-22. Rigg, Steele, and Urco Corps., all accrual-basis, calendar-year C corporations, have only voting common stock outstanding. Rigg owns 85 percent of Steele and 40 percent of Urco. Steele owns 50 percent of Urco. Which group of corporations qualifies as an affiliated group and may join in the filing of a consolidated federal income tax return? A. Rigg and Urco. REG-23. Sunshine Corp., a wholly-owned subsidiary of Pierpoint Corp., purchased land from Pierpoint for its fair market value of $10,000 on January 1 of the previous tax year. Pierpoint's adjusted basis of the land on the date of sale was $8,000. During the current tax year, Sunshine sold the land for $9,000 to an unrelated taxpayer. What gain or loss will be reported on a consolidated tax return filed by Sunshine and Pierpoint for the current tax year? A. ($1,000) REG-24. On January 1, the partners' interest in capital, profits, and losses of Studio Partnership were:
On April 9, Stone sold his entire interest to Taylor. For tax purposes, which of the following statements is correct regarding Studio's status as a partnership? A. Studio terminated as of January 1. REG-25. Lake Trust, a simple trust, reported the following items of income and expense during the year:
What is Lake's distributable net income? A. $9,500 Get Your NINJA Study FrameworkUse it with any CPA Review course. You'll thank us later 🙂 To Your Success, Jeff Elliott, CPA (KS) NINJA CPA Review Which of the following procedures would a CPA least likely perform when reviewing the financial statements of a client?Answer and Explanation: Obtaining confirmation of cash balances is least likely to be performed as a part of obtaining an understanding during an audit engagement of a new audit client previously audited by another CPA.
When compiling financial information the accountant is ordinarily required to?12. To compile financial information, the accountant requires a general understanding of the nature of the entity's business transactions, the form of its accounting records and the accounting basis on which the financial information is to be presented.
Under which of the following circumstances would an accountant most likely conclude that it is necessary to withdraw?Under which of the following circumstances would an accountant most likely conclude that it is necessary to withdraw from an engagement to review a nonissuer's financial statements? The entity declines to provide the accountant with a signed representation letter.
Which of the following should not be included in a compilation report of an accountant?Which of the following should not be included in an accountant's standard report based upon the compilation of an entity's financial statements? A statement that the accountant does not express an opinion but expresses only limited assurance on the financial statements.
|