What are the three movements performed during the ball combo i exercise? nasm

Q: What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?

These can be summed up in the term triple flexion” — the flexion of the hip, knee, and ankle joints.

Inhaltsverzeichnis Show

What are five fundamental movement patterns Nasm?
What are the three categories of exercise quizlet?
What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?

2. resistance development stage: the body increases its functional capacity to adapt to a stressor, such as increasing recruitment of muscle fibers

3. exhaustion stage: prolonged stress or stress that is intolerable and will produce exhaustion or distress to the system
Can result in: Stress fractures, Muscle strains and ligament sprains, Joint pain, Emotional fatigue

QuestionAnswer Client lists potential barriers and makes plans to overcome them? coping responses What is explained by the sliding filament theory? The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial? Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium Which vitamin is the most transient? Vitamin C What is the recommended protein intake for most exercising individuals? 1.4-2.0 g/kg of bodyweight Professionals recognized by Commission of Diatec Registration? Registered Dietician Nutritionist What muscle is primarily targeted when performing bicep curls with the thumbs up? brachioradialis Pronation of the foot? dorsiflexion, eversion, and abduction Optimal amount of protein per mean? 20-40 g What is an example of a ketone body? Acetoacetic Acid What is a limiting factor of how long anaerobic glycosis can proceed? free hydrogen ions Protein structure that helps muscular contraction by providing a binding site? troponin Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? glucogenesis Test that measures lateral speed and agility? LEFT test Recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 ft? 45 cm Surrounds skeletal muscle and connects them to other muscles? fascia Medicine ball weight for the soccer throw exercise? no more than 10% of bodyweight component of agility training deceleration Disease caused by specific medical conditions or medications that disrupt normal bone reformation? type II osteoporosis How many vertebrae in the thoracic spine? 12 Client records disposed of in a secure matter? confidentiality What is the primary limiting factor for a client with PAD? leg pain Muscles that work with the obliques to assist with stranding cable rotation movement? Erector Spinae What training zone is vigorous to very hard in intensity and talking is infrequent short phrases? Zone 3 Process that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Beta oxidation Chest skinfold for men diagonal fold taken half the distance between axillary line and nipple Jackson Pollok 3 site protocol? suprailiac, thigh, triceps The Durnin-Womersley formula's four sites of skinfold measurement include which of the following anatomic locations? biceps, triceps, subscap, suprailiac Glucose broken down by glycosis, what molecule is created that can be oxidized under aerobic conditions? pyruvate Provides information on where the body is in space? visual system Body part that does not increase in density through resistance training? nerves Percentage of Americans 20yrs+ are obese? 40% What would be considered moderately intense exercise? talking comfortably without breathlessness in the average untrained individual Training zone is challenging to hard intensity and continual talking becomes challenging? Zone 2 What is the role of a micronutrient? Regulates various metabolic processes What is the battle rope size to be used for strength and power for less than 30 seconds? 2 in What are movements that are not visible to the human eye? arthrokinematics Tanaka Formula 208 - (0.7 x age) = Max Heart Rate What is the ideal rep range for SAQ drills for a weight-loss client? 3-5 reps What is the ideal rest time for SAQ drills for a weight-loss client? 15-60 seconds What is an example of a local core muscle? transverse abdominus What is the YMCA step test cadence? 96 steps per minute What is the weekly progression rate in exercise volume max recommended for cardio training? 10% Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature. unilateral Sense that provides information on pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles. Somasensatory system Macronutrient range for fat in the diet? 20-35% of total calories Low back pain- have decreased activation in what local muscle of the core? multifidus Normal respiratory rate of an adult at rest? 15 breaths per minute Exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Back extension Ideal rep range of SAQ drills for youth athletes? 3-5 reps Blood pressure- stage 1 hypertension 130-139 systolic / 80-89 diastolic Weight loss client- # SAQ drills 3-4 sets Agility and what fit under the umbrella of agility training? change of direction Kettle bells were first used in what setting? unit of measurement on market and farming scales What is not considered a component of fitness? power RDA for protein 0.8 g/kg of body weight Vitamin D is most important for? bone health Primary function of the muscles of the local core? stabilize vertebral segments What are the 3 level of the OPT model? Stabilization, Strength, Power What exercise can create inaccurate readings while wearing a wrist heart rate monitor? medicine ball catch and pass What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client? small jumps Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic hip complex? lateral subsystem Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program? BOSU ball The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? Serratus anterior Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle? Appendicular Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion? Frontal plane According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis? 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program? To ensure safety Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Nociceptor What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise? Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Erector spinae How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes? 15 to 60 seconds In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes? Phase 2 Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction? As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal? Body fat loss Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis? Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax). Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity? Neuromuscular function What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion? Single-leg squat Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Somatosensation What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? Stretch-shortening cycle Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important? Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin? 0.5 Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Having more mitochondria in their muscle Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle? Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue. Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics? Hip abduction What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching? 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Depth jumps What is sarcopenia? Age-related loss of muscle tissue What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction? Activation of the sympathetic nervous system Which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer's scope of practice is accurate? Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease. What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client's bone mineral density? Walking What causes coronary heart disease? Atherosclerosis What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Altered reciprocal inhibition Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Gluteus maximus What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients? 15 to 60 seconds When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? Provide them with education and knowledge If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle? Undulating What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization? Multiplanar jump with stabilization A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases? Phase 1 Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature? Medicine ball pullover throw What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Ice skaters What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? 3.5 mL/kg/min During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what? Resist shoulder horizontal adduction What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? Strength Endurance During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase? Transverse Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core? Medicine ball woodchop throw Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect? Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Triceps brachii What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury? Proprioception Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration? Medicine ball What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals? Training frequency Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Two-arm push press What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? Force production during dynamic whole-body movements In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur? In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur? Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest? Parasympathetic nervous system

What are five fundamental movement patterns Nasm?

For Loaded Assessments, the fit pro should design a program that observes the primary movement patterns, such as push, pull, hinge, squat, and lunge.

What are the three categories of exercise quizlet?

Three categories of exercise are isotonic, isometric, and resistive isometric. Isotonic exercises cause muscle contraction and change in muscle length (isotonic contraction).

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?

These can be summed up in the term “triple flexion” — the flexion of the hip, knee, and ankle joints.

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo i exercise? nasm

What are five fundamental movement patterns Nasm?

What are the three categories of exercise quizlet?

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?

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