CCNA 3 v7 Final Exam Answers – Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation1. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume Show
2. Which two things should a network administrator modify on a router to perform password recovery? (Choose two.)the system image file 3. What type of network uses one common infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals?borderless 4. What are three advantages of using private IP addresses and NAT? (Choose three.)hides private LAN addressing from outside devices that are connected to the Internet* 5. Which two scenarios are examples of remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)All users at a large branch office can access company resources through a single VPN connection. 6. What are three benefits of cloud computing? (Choose three.)It utilizes end-user clients to do a substantial amount of data preprocessing and storage. 7. What is a characteristic of a single-area OSPF network?All routers share a common
forwarding database. 8. What is a WAN?a network infrastructure that spans a limited physical area such as a city 9. A network administrator has been tasked with creating a disaster recovery plan. As part of this plan, the administrator is looking for a backup site for all of the data on the company servers. What service or technology would support this requirement?data center* 10. Which type of OSPF packet is used by a router to discover neighbor routers and establish neighbor adjacency?link-state update 11. Which two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.)A virus has an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism, and a payload. 12. Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper telephone lines to provide access to subscribers that are multiplexed into a single T3 link connection?ISDN 13. A customer needs a metropolitan area WAN connection that provides high-speed, dedicated bandwidth between two sites. Which type of WAN connection would best fulfill this need?packet-switched network 14. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use debuggers?to detect installed tools within files and directories that provide threat actors remote access and control over a computer or network 15. Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is shown?R1# Standard IP access list 2 10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches) 20 deny any (1 match) Two devices connected to the router have IP addresses of 192.168.10. x .* 16. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to clear dynamic entries before the timeout has expired?clear ip dhcp 17. What are two characteristics of video traffic? (Choose two.)Video traffic consumes less network resources than voice traffic consumes. 18. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is configuring R2 for static NAT to allow the client to access the web server. What is a possible reason that the client PC cannot access the web server?The IP NAT statement
is incorrect. Explanation: Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface. The command to do this would be R2(config-if)# ip nat outside. 19. In setting up a small office network, the network administrator decides to assign private IP addresses dynamically to workstations and mobile devices. Which feature must be enabled on the company router in order for office devices to access the internet?UPnP 20. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation?online collaboration 21. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?192.168.0.100 22. Which two IPsec protocols are used to provide data integrity?MD5* 23. If an outside host does not have the Cisco AnyConnect client preinstalled, how would the host gain access to the client image?The Cisco AnyConnect client is installed by default on most major operating systems. 24. A company is considering updating the campus WAN connection. Which two WAN options are examples of the private WAN architecture? (Choose two.)leased line* 25. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?IP precedence 26. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.)Both routers are configured to use
NTPv2. Explanation: With the show NTP associations command, the IP address of the NTP master is given. 27. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)R1(config)# interface s0/0/0 access-list
105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20 access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 R1(config)# interface gi0/0 access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.54.5 any eq www Explanation: The first two lines of the ACL allow host 10.0.70.23 FTP access to the server that has the IP address of 10.0.54.5. The next line of the ACL allows HTTP access to the server from any host that has an IP address that starts with the number 10. The fourth line of the ACL denies any other type of traffic to the server from any source IP address. The last line of the ACL permits anything else in case there are other servers or devices added to the 10.0.54.0/28 network. Because traffic is being filtered from all other locations and for the 10.0.70.23 host device, the best place to put this ACL is closest to the server. 28. Refer to the exhibit. If the network administrator created a standard ACL that allows only devices that connect to the R2 G0/0 network access to the devices on the R1 G0/1 interface, how should the ACL be applied?inbound on the R2 G0/0 interface Explanation: Because standard access lists only filter on the source IP address, they are commonly placed closest to the destination network. In this example, the source packets will be coming from the R2 G0/0 network. The destination is the R1 G0/1 network. The proper ACL placement is outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface. 29. Which is a characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?does not require management console software* 30. What are the two types of VPN connections? (Choose two.)PPPoE 31. Refer to the exhibit. What three conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose three.)The DR can be reached through the
GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface.* 32. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to limit the connection to R1 vty lines to only the IT group workstations in the network 192.168.22.0/28. The administrator verifies the successful Telnet connections from a workstation with IP 192.168.22.5 to R1 before the ACL is applied. However, after the ACL is applied to the interface Fa0/0, Telnet connections are denied. What is the cause of the connection failure?The enable secret password is not configured on R1. Explanation: The source IP range in the deny ACE is 192.168.20.0 0.0.3.255, which covers IP addresses from 192.168.20.0 to 192.168.23.255. The IT group network 192.168.22.0/28 is included in the 192.168.20/22 network. Therefore, the connection is denied. To fix it, the order of the deny and permit ACE should be switched. 33. What functionality does mGRE provide to the DMVPN technology?It allows the creation of dynamically allocated tunnels through a permanent tunnel source at the hub and dynamically allocated tunnel destinations at the spokes.* Explanation: DMVPN is built on three protocols, NHRP, IPsec, and mGRE. NHRP is the distributed address mapping protocol for VPN tunnels. IPsec encrypts communications on VPN tunnels. The mGRE protocol allows the dynamic creation of multiple spoke tunnels from one permanent VPN hub. 34. What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets?the FIB 35. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to display information about NAT configuration parameters and the number of addresses in the pool?show running-config 36. What is a purpose of establishing a network baseline?It provides
a statistical average for network performance. Explanation: A baseline is used to establish normal network or system performance. It can be used to compare with future network or system performances in order to detect abnormal situations. 37. Match the type of WAN device or service to the description. (Not all options are used.)CPE —> devices and inside wiring that are located on the enterprise edge and connect to a carrier link 38. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.* 39. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for NAT as displayed. What is wrong with the configuration?NAT-POOL2 is not bound to ACL 1.* Explanation: R1 has to have NAT-POOL2 bound to ACL 1. This is accomplished with the command R1(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT-POOL2. This would enable the router to check for all interesting traffic and if it matches ACL 1 it would be translated by use of the addresses in NAT-POOL2. 40. Refer to the exhibit. What method can be used to enable an OSPF router to advertise a default route to neighboring OSPF routers?Use a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it. 41. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use applications such as John the Ripper,THC Hydra, RainbowCrack, and Medusa?to capture and analyze packets within traditional Ethernet LANs or WLANs 42. What are two syntax rules for writing a JSON array? (Choose two.)Each value in the array is separated by a comma.* 43. What is a characteristic of a Trojan horse as it relates to network security?An electronic dictionary is used to obtain a password to be used to infiltrate a key network device. 44. An attacker is redirecting traffic to a false default gateway in an attempt to intercept the data traffic of a switched network. What type of attack could achieve this?TCP SYN flood 45. A company is developing a security policy for secure communication. In the exchange of critical messages between a headquarters office and a branch office, a hash value should only be recalculated with a predetermined code, thus ensuring the validity of data source. Which aspect of secure communications is addressed?data integrity 46. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use packet sniffers?to detect installed tools within files and directories that
provide threat actors remote access and control over a computer or network 47. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 172.20.0.0 255.255.252.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?0.0.15.255 48. Match the HTTP method with the RESTful operation.POST –>> Create 49. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from East?782 50. What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?to activate the OSPF neighboring process 51. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry:access-list 210 permit tcp 172.18.20.0 0.0.0.31 172.18.20.32 0.0.0.31 eq ftp . If a packet with a source address of 172.18.20.14, a destination address of 172.18.20.40, and a protocol of 21 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?Permitted* 52. What is a characteristic of the two-tier spine-leaf topology of the Cisco ACI fabric architecture?The spine and leaf switches are always linked through core switches. 53. Which two scenarios would result in a duplex mismatch? (Choose two.)connecting a device with autonegotiation to another that is manually set to full-duplex* 54. A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level of auth . What is the effect of this setting?authenticates a packet by a string match of the username or community string 55. What are two types of attacks used on DNS open resolvers? (Choose two.)amplification and reflection* 56. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry:access-list 101 permit udp 192.168.100.0 0.0.2.255 64.100.40.0 0.0.0.15 eq telnet . If a packet with a source address of 192.168.101.45, a destination address of 64.100.40.4, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?denied 57. Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?a dedicated VLAN 58. In JSON, what is held within square brackets [ ]?nested values 59. What are three components used in the query portion of a typical RESTful API request? (Choose three.)resources* 60. A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web browser, an error message indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician?top-down 61. Which protocol provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality services and is a type of VPN?MD5 62. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?They are best used as distribution layer switches. 63. Which component of the ACI architecture translates application policies into network programming?the hypervisor 64. Which two pieces of information should be included in a logical topology diagram of a network? (Choose two.)device type 65. Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?The NAT pool has been exhausted.* Explanation: The output of show ip nat statistics shows that there are 2 total addresses and that 2 addresses have been allocated (100%). This indicates that the NAT pool is out of global addresses to give new clients. Based on the show ip nat translations, PCs at 10.1.1.33 and 10.1.1.123 have used the two available addresses to send ICMP messages to a host on the outside network. 66. What are two benefits of using SNMP traps? (Choose two.)They eliminate the need for some periodic polling requests.* 67. Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPsec?IPsec works at the application layer and protects all application data. 68. In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)connect users to the network 69. Which two statements describe the use of asymmetric algorithms? (Choose two.)Public and private keys may be used interchangeably. 70. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has deployed QoS and has configured the network to mark traffic on the VoIP phones as well as the Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches. Where should initial marking occur to establish the trust boundary?Trust Boundary 4 Explanation: Traffic should be classified and marked as close to its source as possible. The trust boundary identifies at which device marked traffic should be trusted. Traffic marked on VoIP phones would be considered trusted as it moves into the enterprise network. 71. What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)reduced costs* 72. What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a network? (Choose two.)to scan for accessibility* 73. A group of users on the same network are all complaining about their computers running slowly. After investigating, the technician determines that these computers are part of a zombie network. Which type of malware is used to control these computers?Botnet* 74. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry:access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 192.31.7.45 eq dns . If a packet with a source address of 10.1.1.201, a destination address of 192.31.7.45, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?permitted 75. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS?flash memory* 76. Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to represent the data for network automation applications?XML Explanation: The common data formats that are used in many applications including network automation and programmability are as follows: 77. What QoS step must occur before packets can be marked?Classifying* 78. What is the main function of a hypervisor?It is used to create and manage multiple VM instances on a host machine.* 79. A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended?Frame Relay 80. Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?traffic shaping Explanation: Traffic shaping buffers excess packets in a queue and then forwards the traffic over increments of time, which creates a smoothed packet output rate. Traffic policing drops traffic when the amount of traffic reaches a configured maximum rate, which creates an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and troughs. 81. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry:access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.3.8 eq dns . If a packet with a source address of 10.1.3.8, a destination address of 10.10.3.8, and a protocol of 53 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?Denied* 82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?defines which addresses are allowed into the router 83. If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?12 84. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator first configured an extended ACL as shown by the output of the show access-lists command. The administrator then edited this access-list by issuing the commands below.Router(config)# ip access-list extended 101 Which two conclusions can be drawn from this new configuration? (Choose two.)TFTP packets will be permitted. Explanation: After the editing, the final configuration is as follows: 85. Which troubleshooting approach is more appropriate for a seasoned network administrator rather than a less-experienced network administrator?a less-structured approach based on an educated guess* 86. Refer to the exhibit. Many employees are wasting company time accessing social media on their work computers. The company wants to stop this access. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?extended ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet 87. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?The inside and outside NAT interlaces have been configured backwards Explanation: The output of debug ip nat shows each packet that is translated by the router. The “s” is the source IP address of the packet and the “d” is the destination. The address after the arrow (“->”) shows the translated address. In this case, the translated address is on the 209.165.201.0 subnet but the ISP facing interface is in the 209.165.200.224/27 subnet. The ISP may drop the incoming packets, or might be unable to route the return packets back to the host because the address is in an unknown subnet. 88. Why is QoS an important issue in a converged network that combines voice, video, and data communications?Data communications must be given the first priority. 89. Which statement describes a VPN?VPNs use logical connections to create public networks through the
Internet. 90. In which OSPF state is the DR/BDR election conducted?ExStart 91. Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks?Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN 92. What is the final operational state that will form between an OSPF DR and a DROTHER once the routers reach convergence?loading 93. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.* Explanation: OSPF elections of a DR are based on the following in order of precedence: 94. Which type of server would be used to keep a historical record of messages from monitored network devices?DNS 95. When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve network performance for real-time traffic? (Choose two.)packet addressing 96. In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?Determine ownership. 97. What protocol sends periodic advertisements between connected Cisco devices in order to learn device name, IOS version, and the number and type of interfaces?CDP* 98. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?0.0.0.127 99. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5:access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.1.5 Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of network resources?inbound on
router A Fa0/0* 100. Which type of OSPFv2 packet is used to forward OSPF link change information?link-state acknowledgment 101. What protocol synchronizes with a private master clock or with a publicly available server on the internet?MPLS 102. Which type of VPN allows multicast and broadcast traffic over a secure site-to-site VPN?dynamic multipoint VPN* 103. An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 10.0.0.0/16, 10.1.0.0/16, and 10.2.0.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 10.1.0.0 network to neighbors?router(config-router)#
network 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0* 104. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to configure router A for OSPF?router ospf 1 router ospf 1 router ospf 1 router ospf 1 105. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?0.0.7.255 106. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?improvement of business practices Explanation: Live migration allows moving of one virtual server to another virtual server that could be in a different location that is some distance from the original data center. 107. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?Hardware does not have to be identical.* 108. Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?S4 and PC_2 A failure domain is the area of a network that is impacted when a critical device such as switch S3 has a failure or experiences problems. 109. Which set of access control entries would allow all users on the 192.168.10.0/24 network to access a web server that is located at 172.17.80.1, but would not allow them to use Telnet?access-list 103 deny tcp host 192.168.10.0 any eq 23 access-list
103 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 host 172.17.80.1 eq 80 access-list 103 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 80 access-list 103 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 host 172.17.80.1 For an extended ACL to meet these requirements the
following need to be included in the access control entries: 110. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add an ACE to the TRAFFIC-CONTROL ACL that will deny IP traffic from the subnet 172.23.16.0/20. Which ACE will meet this requirement?5 deny 172.23.16.0
0.0.15.255* 111. Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router building a link-state database based on received LSAs?executing the SPF algorithm 112. What protocol uses agents, that reside on managed devices, to collect and store information about the device and its operation?SYSLOG 113. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 10.27.27.0 255.255.255.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?0.0.0.63 114. When will an OSPF-enabled router transition from the Down state to the Init state?when an OSPF-enabled interface becomes active 115. What type of traffic is described as having a high volume of data per packet?data 116. What protocol is a vendor-neutral Layer 2 protocol that advertises the identity and capabilities of the host device to other connected network devices?LLDP* 117. Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router running an algorithm to determine the best path to each destination?building the topology table 118. Refer to the exhibit. Which conclusion can be drawn from this OSPF multiaccess network?If the DR stops producing Hello packets, a BDR will be elected, and then it promotes itself to assume the role of DR. On OSPF multiaccess networks, a DR is elected to be the collection and distribution point for LSAs sent and received. A BDR is also elected in case the DR fails. All other non-DR or BDR routers become DROTHER. Instead of flooding LSAs to all routers in the network, DROTHERs only send their LSAs to the DR and BDR using the multicast address 224.0.0.6. If there is no DR/BDR election, the number of required adjacencies is n(n-1)/2 = > 4(4-1)/2 = 6. With the election, this number is reduced to 3. 119. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has an IP address of 192.168.11.10 and needs access to manage R1. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?extended ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet Explanation: Standard
ACLs permit or deny packets based only on the source IPv4 address. Because all traffic types are permitted or denied, standard ACLs should be located as close to the destination as possible. 120. Which type of VPN connects using the Transport Layer Security (TLS) feature?SSL VPN* 121. Which group of APIs are used by an SDN controller to communicate with various applications?eastbound APIs 122. A company has consolidated a number of servers and it is looking for a program or firmware to create and control virtual machines which have access to all the hardware of the consolidated servers. What service or technology would support this requirement?Cisco ACI 123. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to identify inside local addresses that are to be translated?ip nat inside source list 24 interface serial 0/1/0 overload* 124. Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting telecommuting, what service or technology would support requirement?-Cloud services* 125. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to back up the current running configuration of the router to a USB drive, and enters the command copy usbflash0:/R1-config running-config on the router command line. After removing the USB drive and connecting it to a PC, the administrator discovers that the running configuration was not properly backed up to the R1-config file. What is the problem?The file already exists on the USB drive and cannot be overwritten. 126. Which three types of VPNs are examples of enterprise-managed site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)Layer 3 MPLS VPN 127. Refer to the exhibit. Employees on 192.168.11.0/24 work on critically sensitive information and are not allowed access off their network. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?standard ACL
inbound on R1 vty lines 128. In an OSPF network which two statements describe the link-state database (LSDB)? (Choose two.)It can be viewed by using the show ip ospf database command.* 129. In an OSPF network which OSPF structure is used to create the neighbor table on a router?adjacency database* 130. What protocol is used in a system that consists of three elements-a manager, agents, and an information database?MPLS 131. What type of traffic is described as not resilient to loss?data 132. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured with static NAT. Addressing on the router and the web server are correctly configured, but there is no connectivity between the web server and users on the Internet. What is a possible reason for this lack of connectivity?Interface Fa0/0 should be configured with the command ip nat outside . 133. Which type of API would be used to allow authorized salespeople of an organization access to internal sales data from their mobile devices?open 134. Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to represent the data for network automation applications?XML* 135. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry:access-list 101 permit udp 192.168.100.32 0.0.0.7 host 198.133.219.76 eq telnet . If a packet with a source address of 198.133.219.100, a destination address of 198.133.219.170, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?denied 136. Refer to the exhibit. If no router ID was manually configured, what would router R1 use as its OSPF router ID?10.0.0.1 137. What protocol is a vendor-neutral Layer 2 protocol that advertises the identity and capabilities of the host device to other connected network devices?NTP 138. Which type of VPN uses a hub-and-spoke configuration to establish a full mesh topology?MPLS VPN 139. What is a characteristic of the REST API?A. evolved into what became SOAP 140. In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?Determine the symptoms. 141. A student, doing a summer semester of study overseas, has taken hundreds of pictures on a smartphone and wants to back them up in case of loss. What service or technology would support this requirement?Cisco ACI 142. Consider the following access list that allows IP phone configuration file transfers from a particular host to a TFTP server:R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000 R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any R1(config)# interface gi0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out Which method would allow the network administrator to modify the ACL and include FTP transfers from any source IP address?R1(config)# interface gi0/0 R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20 R1(config)# interface
gi0/0 R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000 143. Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.* 144. Match the term to the web link http://www.buycarsfromus.com/2020models/ford/suv.html#Escape component. (Not all options are used.)Http —-> Protocol 145. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to display all static translations that have been configured?show ip nat translations* 146. A network administrator modified an OSPF-enabled router to have a hello timer setting of 20 seconds. What is the new dead interval time setting by default?40 seconds 147. Which type of VPN is the preferred choice for support and ease of deployment for remote access?SSL VPN* 148. What type of traffic is described as predictable and smooth?video 149. Which queuing mechanism has no provision for prioritizing or buffering but simply forwards packets in the order they arrive?FIFO* 150. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the problem on router R2?Implement the command no
passive-interface Serial0/1.* 151. A network administrator is troubleshooting an OSPF problem that involves neighbor adjacency. What should the administrator do?Make sure that the router priority is unique on each router. 152. Refer to the exhibit. Internet privileges for an employee have been revoked because of abuse but the employee still needs access to company resources. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?standard ACL inbound on R2 WAN interface connecting to the internet Explanation: – Standard ACLs permit or deny packets based only on the source IPv4 address. Because all traffic types are permitted or denied, standard ACLs should be located as close to the destination as possible. 153. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry:access-list 100 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.200.0 0.0.0.255 eq www . If a packet with a source address of 192.168.10.244, a destination address of 172.17.200.56, and a protocol of 80 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?denied 154. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use applications such as Nmap, SuperScan, and Angry IP Scanner?to
detect installed tools within files and directories that provide threat actors remote access and control over a computer or network 155. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to display any dynamic PAT translations that have been created by traffic?show ip pat translations 156. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 172.16.91.0 255.255.255.192. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?0.0.31.255 157. What type of traffic is described as requiring latency to be no more than 400 milliseconds (ms)?Video* 158. Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two.)R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255 R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0 R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127* R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any 159. A network administrator is writing a standard ACL that will deny any traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network, but permit all other traffic. Which two commands should be used? (Choose two.)Router(config)# access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 Explanation: To deny traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network, the access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 command is used. To permit all other traffic, the access-list 95 permit any statement is added. 160. Refer to the exhibit. The company has decided that no traffic initiating from any other existing or future network can be transmitted to the Research and Development network. Furthermore, no traffic that originates from the Research and Development network can be transmitted to any other existing or future networks in the company. The network administrator has decided that extended ACLs are better suited for these requirements. Based on the information given, what will the network administrator do?One ACL will be placed on the R1 Gi0/0 interface and one ACL will be placed on the R2 Gi0/0 interface. 161. What protocol uses smaller stratum numbers to indicate that the server is closer to the authorized time source than larger stratum numbers?TFTP 162. Refer to the exhibit. If no router ID was manually configured, what would router Branch2 use as its OSPF router ID?10.0.0.1 Explanation: In OSPFv2, a Cisco router uses a three-tier method to derive its router ID. The first choice is the manually configured router ID with the router-id command. If the router ID is not manually configured, the router will choose the highest IPv4 address of the configured loopback interfaces. Finally if no loopback interfaces are configured, the router chooses the highest active IPv4 address of its physical interfaces. 163. Match the HTTP method with the RESTful operation.164. Refer to the exhibit. A web designer calls to report that the web server web-s1.cisco.com is not reachable through a web browser. The technician uses command line utilities to verify the problem and to begin the troubleshooting process. Which two things can be determined about the problem? (Choose two.)The web server at 192.168.0.10 is reachable from the source host. 165. What type of traffic is described as tending to be unpredictable, inconsistent, and bursty?Video* 166. Match the functions to the corresponding layers. (Not all options are used.)167. What type of traffic is described as consisting of traffic that requires a higher priority if interactive?voice 168. Which type of VPN provides a flexible option to connect a central site with branch sites?IPsec VPN 169. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use fuzzers?to discover security vulnerabilities of a computer* 170. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a standard ACL to permit only the two LAN networks attached to R1 to access the network that connects to R2 G0/1 interface, but not the G0/0 interface. When following the best practices, in what location should the standard ACL be applied?R1 S0/0/0 outbound 171. Two OSPF-enabled routers are connected over a point-to-point link. During the ExStart state, which router will be chosen as the first one to send DBD packets?the router with the highest router ID* Explain:In the ExStart state, the two routers decide which router will send the DBD packets first. The router with the higher router ID will be the first router to send DBD packets during the Exchange state 172. Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router sending Hello packets out all of the OSPF-enabled interfaces?exchanging link-state
advertisements 173. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use forensic tools?to obtain specially designed operating systems preloaded with tools optimized for hacking 174. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers but PC1 is unable to connect to PC2. What is the most likely problem?Interface Fa0/0 has not been activated for OSPFv2 on router R2.* Explanation: If a LAN network is not advertised using OSPFv2, a remote network will not be reachable. The output displays a successful neighbor adjacency between router R1 and R2 on the interface S0/0 of both routers. 175. ABCTech is investigating the use of automation for some of its products. In order to control and test these products, the programmers require Windows, Linux, and MAC OS on their computers. What service or technology would support this requirement?dedicated servers 176. A network engineer has noted that some expected network route entries are not displayed in the routing table. Which two commands will provide additional information about the state of router adjacencies, timer intervals, and the area ID? (Choose two.)show ip protocols 177. Which type of VPN involves the forwarding of traffic over the backbone through the use of labels distributed among core routers?MPLS VPN* 178. Which type of VPN involves a nonsecure tunneling protocol being encapsulated by IPsec?SSL VPN 179. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use hacking operation systems?to detect any evidence of a hack or malware in a computer or network 180. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to identify an interface as part of the external global network?ip pat inside 181. To avoid purchasing new hardware, a company wants to take advantage of idle system resources and consolidate the number of servers while allowing for multiple operating systems on a single hardware platform. What service or technology would support this requirement?data center Explain: Server virtualization takes advantage of idle resources and consolidates the number of required servers. This also allows for multiple operating systems to exist on a single hardware platform. 182. Which type of VPN routes packets through virtual tunnel interfaces for encryption and forwarding?MPLS VPN 183. Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router flooding link-state and cost information about each directly connected link?building the topology table 184. What type of traffic is described as using either TCP or UDP depending on the need for error recovery?video 185. Refer to the exhibit. The company CEO demands that one ACL be created to permit email traffic to the internet and deny FTP access. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?extended ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet* 186. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to define a pool of addresses for translation?ip nat inside source static 172.19.89.13 198.133.219.65 187. What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation?data link 188. An ACL is applied inbound on router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry:access-list 210 permit tcp 172.18.20.0 0.0.0.47 any eq ftp If a packet with a source address of 172.18.20.40, a destination address of 10.33.19.2, and a protocol of 21 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?Permitted* 189. What type of traffic is described as consisting of traffic that gets a lower priority if it is not mission-critical?video 190. Which OSPF table is identical on all converged routers within the same OSPF area?routing 191. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry:access-list 100 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www . If a packet with a source address of 192.168.10.45, a destination address of 10.10.3.27, and a protocol of 80 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?Permitted* 192. What protocol allows the manager to poll agents to access information from the agent MIB?CBWFQ 193. Match each component of a WAN connection to its description. (Not all options are used.)194. What type of traffic is described as being able to tolerate a certain amount of latency, jitter, and loss without any noticeable effects?Voice* 195. What term describes adding a value to the packet header, as close to the source as possible, so that the packet matches a defined policy?policing 196. Which three traffic-related factors would influence selecting a particular WAN link type? (Choose three.)cost of the link 197. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to link the inside local addresses to the pool of addresses available for PAT translation?ip nat inside source list ACCTNG pool POOL-STAT 198. What protocol is a vendor-neutral Layer 2 discovery protocol that must be configured separately to transmit and receive information packets?SNMP What is the OSPF cost to reach the router a LAN 172.16 1.0 24 from b782?1.0/24 from B is as follows:Serial link (1544 Kbps) from B to A cost => 100,000,000 / 1,544,000 = 64Gigabit Ethernet link on A cost => 100,000,000 / 1,000,000,000 = 1Total cost to reach 172.16. 1.0/24 = 64 + 1 = 6533.
What is the default OSPF cost for any 100 Mbps or higher link?So no matter the speed of the internet, it will all have a default cost of 1 when it is over 100 Mbps. This can create subpar routing in up-to-date networks that use current high-speed ethernet interfaces. By doing this, you can ensure that your routers will pick the fastest route possible.
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