In what modes can you type the command show MAC address table and expect to get a response with MAC table entries choose two answers?

Which of the following protocols are examples of
TCP/IP transport layer protocols? (Choose two
answers.)
a. Ethernet
b. HTTP
c. IP
d. UDP
e. SMTP
f. TCP

D and F. Of the remaining answers, Ethernet defines both physical and data link protocols, PPP is a data link protocol, IP is a network layer protocol, and SMTP and HTTP are application layer protocols.

Which of the following protocols are examples of
TCP/IP data link layer protocols? (Choose two
answers.)
a. Ethernet
b. HTTP
c. IP
d. UDP
e. SMTP
f. TCP
g. PPP

A and G. Of the remaining answers, IP is a network layer protocol, TCP and UDP are transport layer protocols, and SMTP and HTTP are application layer protocols.

The process of HTTP asking TCP to send some data
and making sure that it is received correctly is an
example of what?
a. Same-layer interaction
b. Adjacent-layer interaction
c. OSI model
d. All of these answers are correct.

B. Adjacent-layer interaction occurs on one
computer, with two adjacent layers in the model. The higher layer requests services from the next lower layer, and the lower layer provides the services to the next higher layer.

The process of TCP on one computer marking a
TCP segment as segment 1, and the receiving
computer then acknowledging the receipt of TCP
segment 1 is an example of what?
a. Data encapsulation
b. Same-layer interaction
c. Adjacent-layer interaction
d. OSI model
e. All of these answers are correct.

B. Same-layer interaction occurs on multiple
computers. The functions defined by that layer typically need to be accomplished by multiple computers—for example, the sender setting a sequence number for a segment and the receiver acknowledging receipt of that segment. A single layer defines that process, but the implementation of that layer on multiple devices is required to accomplish the function.

The process of a web server adding a TCP header
to the contents of a web page, followed by adding anIP header and then adding a data link header and
trailer, is an example of what?
a. Data encapsulation
b. Same-layer interaction
c. OSI model
d. All of these answers are correct.

A. Encapsulation is defined as the process of adding a header in front of data supplied by a higher layer (and possibly adding a trailer as well).

Which of the following terms is used specifically to
identify the entity created when encapsulating data
inside data link layer headers and trailers?
a. Data
b. Chunk
c. Segment
d. Frame
e. Packet

D. By convention, the term frame refers to the part of a network message that includes the data link header and trailer, with encapsulated data. The term packet omits the data link header and trailer, leaving the network layer header with its encapsulated data. The term segment omits the network layer header, leaving the transport layer header and its encapsulated data.

Which OSI layer defines the functions of logical
network-wide addressing and routing?
a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4
e. Layer 5, 6, or 7

C. The network layer concerns itself with delivery of data over the complete end-to-end path. That requires a way to identify each device, using addresses, and the addresses must be logical addresses that are therefore not tied to the physical details of the network.

A. The OSI physical layer includes all standards
that specify the shape of connectors, wiring in
cabling, electrical details, and encoding that the
electrical signals use to encode bits over a cable.

Which OSI layer defines the standards for cabling and connectors?
a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4
e. Layer 5, 6, or 7

What are the 5 steps using the TCP/IP model in which a TCP/IP host sends data?

Step 1. Create and encapsulate the application data with any required application layer headers. For example, the HTTP OK message can be returned in an HTTP header, followed by part of the contents of a web page.

Step 2. Encapsulate the data supplied by the application layer inside a transport layer header. For end-user applications, a TCP or UDP
header is typically used.

Step 3. Encapsulate the data supplied by the transport layer inside a network layer (IP) header. IP defines the IP addresses that uniquely identify each computer.

Step 4. Encapsulate the data supplied by the network layer inside a data link layer header and trailer.
This layer uses both a header and a trailer.

Step 5. Transmit the bits. The physical layer encodes a signal onto the medium to transmit the frame.

Whats the difference between a frame, packet and segment

What are the OSI model layers, original TCP/IP layers and updated TCP/IP layers?

What are the benefits of layered protocol specifications?

*Less complex: Compared to not using a layered model, network models break the concepts into smaller parts.
* Standard interfaces: The standard interface definitions between each layer allow multiple vendors to create products that fill a particular role, with all the benefits of open competition.
* Easier to learn: Humans can more easily discuss and learn about the many details of a protocol specification.
* Easier to develop: Reduced complexity allows easier program changes and faster product development.
* Multivendor interoperability: Creating products to meet the same networking standards means that computers and networking gear from multiple vendors can work in the same network.
* Modular engineering: One vendor can write software that implements higher layers—for example, a web browser—and another vendor can write software that implements the lower layers— for example, Microsoft's built-in TCP/IP software in its operating systems.

Protocol data unit. An OSI term to refer generically to a grouping of information by a particular layer of the OSI model. More specifically, an LxPDU would imply the data and headers as defined by Layer x.

What are the speeds, standard names for ethernet, fast ethernet, gigabit ethernet, and 10 gigabit ethernet?

What is the 10Base-T and 100Base-T straight through cable pinout?

What is the pinout for a crossover cable?

Which devices transmit on pins 1,2 and which transmits on pins 3,6?

What is the structure of a mac address?

Difference between half duplex and full duplex?

Half duplex: The device must wait to send if
it is currently receiving a frame; in other
words, it cannot send and receive at the same time.

Full duplex: The device does not have to wait before sending; it can send and receive at the same time.

What is the frame check sequence?

A field in many data link trailers used as part of the error-detection process.

In the LAN for a small office, some user devices
connect to the LAN using a cable, while others
connect using wireless technology (and no cable).
Which of the following is true regarding the use of
Ethernet in this LAN?
a. Only the devices that use cables are using
Ethernet.
b. Only the devices that use wireless are using
Ethernet.
c. Both the devices using cables and those using
wireless are using Ethernet.
d. None of the devices are using Ethernet.

A. The IEEE defines Ethernet LAN standards, with standard names that begin with 802.3, all of which happen to use cabling. The IEEE also defines wireless LAN standards, with standard names that begin with 802.11, which are separate standards from Ethernet.

Which of the following Ethernet standards defines
Gigabit Ethernet over UTP cabling?
a. 10GBASE-T
b. 100BASE-T
c. 1000BASE-T
d. None of the other answers is correct.

C. The number before the word BASE defines the speed, in megabits per second (Mbps). 1000 Mbps equals 1 gigabit per second (1 Gbps). The T in the suffix implies twisted-pair or UTP cabling, so 1000BASE-T is the UTP-based Gigabit Ethernet standard name.

Which of the following is true about Ethernet
crossover cables for Fast Ethernet?
a. Pins 1 and 2 are reversed on the other end of the
cable.
b. Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to
pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable.
c. Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to
pins 3 and 4 on the other end of the cable.
d. The cable can be up to 1000 meters long to cross
over between buildings.
e. None of the other answers is correct.

B. Crossover cables cross the wire at one node's transmit pin pair to the different pins used as the receive pins on the other device. For 10-and 100-Mbps Ethernet, the specific crossover cable wiring
connects the pair at pins 1 and 2 on each end of the cable to pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable, respectively.

Each answer lists two types of devices used in a
100BASE-T network. If these devices were
connected with UTP Ethernet cables, which pairs of
devices would require a straight-through cable?
(Choose three answers.)
a. PC and router
b. PC and switch
c. Hub and switch
d. Router and hub
e. Wireless access point (Ethernet port) and switch

B, D, and E. Routers, wireless access point
Ethernet ports, and PC NICs all send using pins 1 and 2, whereas hubs and LAN switches transmit on pins 3 and 6. Straight-through cables connect devices that use opposite pin pairs for sending, because the cable does not need to cross the pairs.

Which of the following is true about the CSMA/CD
algorithm?
a. The algorithm never allows collisions to occur.
b. Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines
how the computers should notice a collision and
how to recover.
c. The algorithm works with only two devices on
the same Ethernet.
d. None of the other answers is correct.

B. NICs (and switch ports) use the carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) algorithm to implement half-duplex logic. CSMA/CD attempts to avoid collisions, but it also notices when collisions do occur, with rules
about how the Ethernet nodes should stop sending, wait, and try again later.

Which of the following is true about the Ethernet
FCS field?
a. Ethernet uses FCS for error recovery.
b. It is 2 bytes long.
c. It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet
header.
d. It is used for encryption.

C. The 4-byte Ethernet FCS field, found in the Ethernet trailer, allows the receiving node to see what the sending node computed with a math formula that is a key part of the error-detection process. Note that Ethernet defines the process of
detecting errors (error detection), but not error recovery.

Which of the following are true about the format of
Ethernet addresses? (Choose three answers.)
a. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into
the first 2 bytes of the address.
b. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into
the first 3 bytes of the address.
c. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into
the first half of the address.
d. The part of the address that holds this
manufacturer's code is called the MAC.
e. The part of the address that holds this
manufacturer's code is called the OUI.
f. The part of the address that holds this
manufacturer's code has no specific name.

B, C, and E. The pre-assigned universal MAC address, given to each Ethernet port when manufactured, breaks the address into two 3-byte halves. The first half is called the organizationally unique identifier (OUI), which the IEEE assigns to the company that builds the product as a Unique hex number to be used only by that company.

Which of the following terms describe Ethernet
addresses that can be used to send one frame that is
delivered to multiple devices on the LAN? (Choose
two answers.)
a. Burned-in address
b. Unicast address
c. Broadcast address
d. Multicast address

C and D. Ethernet supports unicast addresses, which identify a single Ethernet node, and group addresses, which can be used to send one frame to multiple Ethernet nodes. The two types of group
addresses are the broadcast address and multicast address.

In a point to point leased line, what components are typically used?

If you wanted to connect two routers directly for testing, what components would you use?

What are the two most popular data link layer protocols used for leased lines?

High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)

What is the encapsulation process for routers encapsulating and de-capsulating over HDLC from one lan to another?

What is the encapsulation process for routers encapsulating and de-capsulating over EoMPLS from one lan to another?

What is the typical setup for a DSL connection?

What is the typical setup for a Cable connection?

A serial communications circuit between two points, provided by some service provider, typically a telephone company (telco). Because the telco does not sell a physical cable between the two endpoints, instead charging a monthly fee for the ability to send bits between the two sites, the service is considered to be a leased service.

High-Level Data Link Control. A bit-oriented
synchronous data link layer protocol developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

What is Ethernet over MPLS?

(EoMPLS) A term referring specifically to how a service provider can create an Ethernet WAN service using an MPLS network. More generally, a term referring to Ethernet WAN services.

In the cabling for a leased line, which of the
following typically connects to a four-wire line
provided by a telco?
a. Router serial interface without internal CSU/DSU
b. CSU/DSU
c. Router serial interface with internal transceiver
d. Switch serial interface

B. The four-wire circuit cable supplied by the telco connects to the device acting as the CSU/DSU. That can be an external CSU/DSU or a CSU/DSU integrated into a router serial interface card. LAN switches do not have serial interfaces, and router
serial interfaces do not have transceivers.

Which of the following is an accurate speed at
which a leased line can operate in the United States?
a. 100 Mbps
b. 100 Kbps
c. 256 Kbps
d. 6.4 Mbps

C. Leased lines can run at various preset speeds. These include multiples of 64 kbps, up through 24 times 64 kbps. The speeds can also be multiples of T1 speed (1.544 Mbps), up to 28 times that speed.

Which of the following fields in the HDLC header
used by Cisco routers does Cisco add, beyond the
ISO standard HDLC?
a. Flag
b. Type
c. Address
d. FCS

B. The standard HDLC header does not include a Type field, which identifies the type of packet encapsulated inside the HDLC frame.

Two routers, R1 and R2, connect using an Ethernet
over MPLS service. The service provides point-to-point service between these two routers only, as a
Layer 2 Ethernet service. Which of the following are
the most likely to be true about this WAN? (Choose
two answers.)
a. R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with
the other end of the cable connected to R2.
b. R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with
the other end of the cable connected to a device at
the WAN service provider point of presence.
c. R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an
HDLC header/trailer.
d. R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an
Ethernet header/trailer.

B and D. The physical installation uses a model in which each router uses a physical Ethernet link to connect to some SP device in an SP facility called a point of presence (PoP). The Ethernet link does not span from each customer device to the other. From a data-link perspective, both routers use the same Ethernet standard header and trailer used on LANs; HDLC does not matter on these Ethernet WAN links.

Which of the following Internet access technologies,
used to connect a site to an ISP, offers asymmetric
speeds? (Choose two answers.)
a. Leased lines
b. DSL
c. Cable Internet
d. BGP

B and C. Leased lines transmit data at the same speed in both directions, making them a symmetric service. DSL and cable Internet offer asymmetric speeds, with a faster downstream speed. BGP is a routing protocol and not an Internet access
technology.

Fred has just added DSL service at his home, with a
separate DSL modem and consumer-grade router
with four Ethernet ports. Fred wants to use the same
old phone he was using before the installation of
DSL. Which is most likely true about the phone
cabling and phone used with his new DSL
installation?
a. He uses the old phone, cabled to one of the
router/switch device's Ethernet ports.
b. He uses the old phone, cabled to the DSL
modem's ports.
c. He uses the old phone, cabled to an existing
telephone port and not to any new device.
d. The old phone must be replaced with a digital
phone.

C. With DSL, the requirements on the phone's wiring are unchanged. The phone can connect to any working telephone jack, as if the DSL modem and router did not exist.

What are the first octet ranges of class A-E networks?

What are the number of networks and hosts per network for a class A, B and C network

What are the valid network numbers for class A, B and C networks?

Provide a summary of a router's forwarding logic

Step 1. Use the data-link Frame Check Sequence (FCS) field to ensure that the frame had no errors; if errors occurred, discard the frame.
Step 2. Assuming t at the frame was not discarded at Step 1, discard the old data-link header and trailer, leaving the IP packet.
Step 3. Compare the IP packet's destination IP address to the routing table, and find the route that best matches the destination address. This route identifies the outgoing interface of the router, and possibly the next-hop router IP address.
Step 4. Encapsulate the IP packet inside a new data-link header and trailer, appropriate for the outgoing interface, and forward the frame.

What are the goals of a routing protocol?

* To dynamically learn and fill the routing table with aroute to each subnet in the internetwork.
* If more than one route to a subnet is available, to place the best route in the routing table.
* To notice when routes in the table are no longer valid, and to remove them from the routing table.
* If a route is removed from the routing table and another route through another neighboring router is available, to add the route to the routing table.
(Many people view this goal and the preceding one as a single goal.)
* To work quickly when adding new routes or replacing lost routes. (The time between losing the route and finding a working replacement route is called convergence time.)
* To prevent routing loops.

What is the basic process of a DNS name resolution request?

What is the basic process of an ARP request?

What command can be used to see the contents of an ARP cache?

What is the basic process of a ping request?

What is the default router (default gateway)?

On an IP host, the IP address of some router to which the host sends packets when the packet's destination address is on a subnet other than the local subnet.

A list of routes in a router, with each route
listing the destination subnet and mask, the router interface out which to forward packets destined to that subnet, and as needed, the next-hop router's IP address.

What is a unicast IP address?

An IP address that represents a single interface. In IPv4, these addresses come from the Class A, B, and C ranges.

Which of the following are functions of OSI Layer 3
protocols? (Choose two answers.)
a. Logical addressing
b. Physical addressing
c. Path selection
d. Arbitration
e. Error recovery

A and C. The network layer defines logical
addressing, in contrast to physical addressing. The logical address structure allows easy grouping of addresses, which makes routing more efficient. Path selection refers to the process of choosing the best routes to use in the network. Physical addressing and arbitration typically are data link layer functions, and error recovery typically is a transport layer function.

Which of the following is a valid Class C IP
address that can be assigned to a host?
a. 1.1.1.1
b. 200.1.1.1
c. 128.128.128.128
d. 224.1.1.1

B. 224.1.1.1 is a Class D address

What is the assignable range of values for the first
octet for Class A IP networks?
a. 0 to 127
b. 0 to 126
c. 1 to 127
d. 1 to 126
e. 128 to 191
f. 128 to 192

D. The first octet of Class A addresses ranges from 1 to 126, inclusive; Class B, 128 to 191, inclusive; and Class C, 192 to 223 inclusive. 127 is technically in the Class A range, but it is a reserved address used as a loopback.

PC1 and PC2 are on two different Ethernet LANs
that are separated by an IP router. PC1's IP address
is 10.1.1.1, and no subnetting is used. Which of the
following addresses could be used for PC2?
(Choose two answers.)
a. 10.1.1.2
b. 10.2.2.2
c. 10.200.200.1
d. 9.1.1.1
e. 225.1.1.1
f. 1.1.1.1

D and F. Without any subnetting in use, all
addresses in the same network as 10.1.1.1—all
addresses in Class A network 10.0.0.0—must be on the same LAN. Addresses separated from that network by some router cannot be in network 10.0.0.0. So, the two correct answers are the only two answers that list a valid unicast IP address that is not in network 10.0.0.0.

Imagine a network with two routers that are
connected with a point-to-point HDLC serial link.
Each router has an Ethernet, with PC1 sharing the
Ethernet with Router1 and PC2 sharing the Ethernet
with Router2. When PC1 sends data to PC2, which
of the following is true?
a. Router1 strips the Ethernet header and trailer off
the frame received from PC1, never to be used
again.
b. Router1 encapsulates the Ethernet frame inside an
HDLC header and sends the frame to Router2,
which extracts the Ethernet frame for forwarding
to PC2.
c. Router1 strips the Ethernet header and trailer off
the frame received from PC1, which is exactly recreated
by Router2 before forwarding data to
PC2.
d. Router1 removes the Ethernet, IP, and TCP
headers and rebuilds the appropriate headers
before forwarding the packet to Router2.

A. PC1 will send an Ethernet frame to Router 1, with PC1's MAC address as the source address and Router 1's MAC address as the destination address.
Router 1 will remove the encapsulated IP packet from that Ethernet frame, discarding the frame header and trailer. Router 1 will forward the IP packet by first encapsulating it inside an HDLC frame, but Router 1 will not encapsulate the Ethernet frame in the HDLC frame but rather the IP packet. Router 2 will de-encapsulate the IP packet from the HDLC frame and forward it onto the Ethernet LAN, adding a new Ethernet header and trailer, but this header will differ. It will list Router 2's MAC address as the source address and PC2's MAC address as the destination address.

Which of the following does a router normally use
when making a decision about routing TCP/IP
packets?
a. Destination MAC address
b. Source MAC address
c. Destination IP address
d. Source IP address
e. Destination MAC and IP addresses

C. Routers compare the packet's destination IP address to the router's IP routing table, making a match and using the forwarding instructions in the matched route to forward the IP packet.

Which of the following are true about a LANconnected
TCP/IP host and its IP routing
(forwarding) choices? (Choose two answers.)
a. The host always sends packets to its default
gateway.
b. The host sends packets to its default gateway if
the destination IP address is in a different class of
IP network than the host.
c. The host sends packets to its default gateway if
the destination IP address is in a different subnet
than the host.
d. The host sends packets to its default gateway if
the destination IP address is in the same subnet as
the host.

B and C. IPv4 hosts generally use basic two-branch logic. To send an IP packet to another host on the same IP network or subnet that is on the same LAN, the sender sends the IP packet directly to that host. Otherwise, the sender sends the packet to its default router (also called the default gateway).

Which of the following are functions of a routing
protocol? (Choose two answers.)
a. Advertising known routes to neighboring routers
b. Learning routes for subnets directly connected to
the router
c. Learning routes, and putting those routes into the
routing table, for routes advertised to the router
by its neighboring routers
d. Forwarding IP packets based on a packet's
destination IP address

A and C. Routers do all the actions listed in all four answers; however, the routing protocol does the functions in the two listed answers. Independent of the routing protocol, a router learns routes for IP
subnets and IP networks directly connected to its interfaces. Routers also forward (route) IP packets, but that process is called IP routing, or IP forwarding, and is an independent process compared to the work of a routing protocol.

A company implements a TCP/IP network, with
PC1 sitting on an Ethernet LAN. Which of the
following protocols and features requires PC1 to
learn information from some other server device?
a. ARP
b. ping
c. DNS
d. None of these answers is correct.

C. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) does allow PC1 to learn information, but the information is not stored on a server. The ping command does let the user at PC1 learn whether packets can flow in the
network, but it again does not use a server. With the Domain Name System (DNS), PC1 acts as a DNS client, relying on a DNS server to respond with information about the IP addresses that match a given hostname.

List the features supported by TCP/UDP?

Note that only the first item listed in the table is supported by UDP, whereas all items in the table are supported by TCP.

A socket consist of what three things?

* An IP address
* A transport protocol
* A port number

What are the port numbers and protocols used for the following applications?
FTP Data
FTP Contol
SSH
Telnet
SMTP
DNS
DHCP Server
DHCP Client
TFTP
HTTP (WWW)
POP3
SNMP
SSL
Syslog

What are the steps in TCP connection establishment?

What is a connection-oriented protocol?

What is a connectionless protocol?

What is the general process of TCP windowing?

What is the structure of a URI/Webpage address?

What is connection establishment?

The process by which a connection-oriented protocol creates a connection. With TCP, a connection is established by a three-way transmission of TCP segments.

The process of discovering whether a
data link level frame was changed during transmission. This process typically uses a Frame Check Sequence (FCS) field in the data link trailer.

The process of noticing when some transmitted data was not successfully received and resending the data until it is successfully received.

The process of regulating the amount of data sent by a sending computer toward a receiving computer. Several flow control mechanisms exist, including TCP flow control, which uses windowing.

What is forward acknowledgement?

A process used by protocols that do error recovery, in which the number that acknowledges data lists the next data that should be sent, not the last data that was successfully received.

What is ordered data transfer?

A networking function, included in
TCP, in which the protocol defines how the sending host should number the data transmitted, defines how the receiving device should attempt to reorder the data if it arrives out of order, and specifies to discard the data if it cannot be delivered in order.

In TCP, a term used to describe a TCP header
and its encapsulated data (also called an L4PDU). Also in TCP, the process of accepting a large chunk of data from the application layer and breaking it into smaller pieces that fit into TCP segments. In Ethernet, a segment is either a single Ethernet cable or a single collision domain (no matter how many cables are used).

What are sliding windows?

For protocols such as TCP that allow the
receiving device to dictate the amount of data the sender can send before receiving an acknowledgment—a concept called a window—a reference to the fact that the mechanism to grant future windows is typically just a number that grows upward slowly after each acknowledgment, sliding upward.

Uniform Resource Identifier. The formal and correct term for the formatted text used to refer to objects in an IP network. This text is commonly called a URL or a web address. For example, http://www.certskills.com/blog is a URI that identifies the protocol (HTTP), hostname
(www.certskills.com), and web page (blog).

Which of the following header fields identify which
TCP/IP application gets data received by the
computer? (Choose two answers.)
a. Ethernet Type
b. SNAP Protocol Type
c. IP Protocol
d. TCP Port Number
e. UDP Port Number

D and E. Many headers include a field that
identifies the next header that follows inside a message. Ethernet uses the Ethernet Type field, and the IP header uses the Protocol field. The TCP and UDP headers identify the application that should receive the data that follows the TCP or UDP header by using the port number field in the TCP and UDP headers, respectively.

Which of the following are typical functions of
TCP? (Choose four answers.)
a. Flow control (windowing)
b. Error recovery
c. Multiplexing using port numbers
d. Routing
e. Encryption
f. Ordered data transfer

A, B, C, and F. IP, not TCP, defines routing. Many other protocols define encryption, but TCP does not. The correct answers simply list various TCP features.

Which of the following functions is performed by
both TCP and UDP?
a. Windowing
b. Error recovery
c. Multiplexing using port numbers
d. Routing
e. Encryption
f. Ordered data transfer

C. TCP, not UDP, performs windowing, error
recovery, and ordered data transfer. Neither
performs routing or encryption.

What do you call data that includes the Layer 4
protocol header, and data given to Layer 4 by the
upper layers, not including any headers and trailers
from Layers 1 to 3? (Choose two answers.)
a. L3PDU
b. Chunk
c. Segment
d. Packet
e. Frame
f. L4PDU

C and F. The terms packet and L3PDU refer to the header plus data encapsulated by Layer 3. Frame and L2PDU refer to the header (and trailer), plus the data encapsulated by Layer 2. Segment and L4PDU refer to the header and data encapsulated by the transport layer protocol.

In the URI http://www.certskills.com/ICND1,
which part identifies the web server?
a. http
b. www.certskills.com
c. certskills.com
d. http://www.certskills.com
e. The file name.html includes the hostname.

B. Note that the hostname is all the text between the // and the . The text before the / identifies the application layer protocol, and the text after the /
represents the name of the web page.

Fred opens a web browser and connects to the
www.certskills.com website. Which of the
following are typically true about what happens
between Fred's web browser and the web server?
(Choose two answers.)
a. Messages flowing toward the server use UDP
destination port 80.
b. Messages flowing from the server typically use
RTP.
c. Messages flowing to the client typically use a
source TCP port number of 80.
d. Messages flowing to the server typically use
TCP.

C and D. Web traffic uses TCP as the transport protocol, with HTTP as the application protocol. As a result, the web server typically uses well-known TCP port 80, which is the well-known port for
HTTP traffic. Messages flowing to the web server would have a destination TCP port of 80, and messages flowing from the server would have a source TCP port of 80.

What are the two ways of accessing a switch's CLI?

When connecting to a switch physically via the console, what thee connection type can you use?

What are the default console port settings to connect to a switch?

Which commands can be used to move forward and backward between user, enable and configuration mode?

What command will move you from global config mode to console line config mode?

What are the common command prompt configuration modes?

What are the 4 switch memory types and what is stored in them?

What command is ran to save the running config?

copy running-config startup-config

To erase the startup config, what three options do you have for commands?

write erase
erase startup-config
erase nvram:

What command is used to reboot a switch?

In what modes can you type the command show mac
address-table and expect to get a response with
MAC table entries? (Choose two answers.)
a. User mode
b. Enable mode
c. Global configuration mode
d. Interface configuration mode

A and B. The command in the question is an EXEC command that happens to require only user mode access. As such, you can use this command in both user mode and enable mode. As an EXEC command, you cannot use the command (as shown in the question) in configuration mode.
Note that you can put the word do in front of the EXEC command while in configuration mode (for example, do show mac address-table) to issue the
command from inside any configuration mode.

In which of the following modes of the CLI could
you type the command reload and expect the switch
to reboot?
a. User mode
b. Enable mode
c. Global configuration mode
d. Interface configuration mode

B. The command referenced in the question, the reload command, is an EXEC command that happens to require privileged mode, also known as enable mode. This command is not available in user mode.
Note that you can put the word do in front of the EXEC command while in configuration mode (for example, do reload) to issue the command from inside any configuration mode.

Which of the following is a difference between
Telnet and SSH as supported by a Cisco switch?
a. SSH encrypts the passwords used at login, but
not other traffic; Telnet encrypts nothing.
b. SSH encrypts all data exchange, including login
passwords; Telnet encrypts nothing.
c. Telnet is used from Microsoft operating systems,
and SSH is used from UNIX and Linux operating
systems.
d. Telnet encrypts only password exchanges; SSH
encrypts all data exchanges.

B. SSH provides a secure remote login option, encrypting all data flows, including password exchanges. Telnet sends all data (including passwords) as clear text.

What type of switch memory is used to store the
configuration used by the switch when it is up and
working?
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. Flash
d. NVRAM
e. Bubble

A. Switches (and routers) keep the currently used configuration in RAM, using NVRAM to store the configuration file that is loaded when the switch (or router) next loads the IOS.

What command copies the configuration from RAM
into NVRAM?
a. copy running-config tftp
b. copy tftp running-config
c. copy running-config startup-config
d. copy startup-config running-config
e. copy startup-config running-config
f. copy running-config startup-config

F. The startup-config file is in NVRAM, and the running-config file is in RAM.

A switch user is currently in console line
configuration mode. Which of the following would
place the user in enable mode? (Choose two
answers.)
a. Using the exit command once
b. Using the end command once
c. Pressing the Ctrl+Z key sequence once
d. Using the quit command

B and C. The exit command moves the user one config mode backward, toward global configuration mode, or if already in global configuration mode, it moves the user back to enable mode. From console mode, it moves the user back to global configuration mode. The end command and the Ctrl+Z key sequence both move the user back to enable mode regardless of the current configuration submode.

What does the login command do?

Line (console and vty) configuration mode. Tells IOS to prompt for a password (no username).

How do switches make decisions to forward and filter frames, learn MAC addresses, and use STP to avoid loops?

Step 1. Switches forward frames based on the destination MAC address:
A. If the destination MAC address is a broadcast, multicast, or unknown destination unicast (a unicast not listed in the MAC table), the switch floods the frame.
B. If the destination MAC address is a known unicast address (a unicast address found in the MAC table):
i. If the outgoing interface listed in the MAC
address table is different from the interface
in which the frame was received, the switch
forwards the frame out the outgoing
interface.
ii. If the outgoing interface is the same as the interface in which the frame was received, the switch filters the frame, meaning that the switch simply ignores the frame and does not forward it.
Step 2. Switches use the following logic to learn MAC address table entries:
A. For each received frame, examine the source MAC address and note the interface from which the frame was received.
B. If it is not already in the table, add the MAC address and interface it was learned on.Step 3. Switches use STP to prevent loops by causing some interfaces to block, meaning that they do not send or receive frames.

Out of the box, which VLAN are all ports on a Cisco switch programmed for?

What command is ran to see a switch's mac address table?

What command is ran to show all dynamically learned mac addresses only?

show mac address-table dynamic

What command can be ran to find a specific mac address in a mac address table?

show mac address-table dynamic address
(enter mac here)

What command can be ran if you would like to see the mac addresses tied to a specific port?

show mac address-table dynamic interface
(enter port here)

What command can be ran if you would like to find mac addresses in a mac address table tied to a specific VLAN?

show mac address-table dynamic vlan (enter vlan number here)

What command can be ran to clear dynamic entries from a mac address table?

clear mac address-table dynamic

Which of the following statements describes part of
the process of how a switch decides to forward a
frame destined for a known unicast MAC address?
a. It compares the unicast destination address to the
bridging, or MAC address, table.
b. It compares the unicast source address to the
bridging, or MAC address, table.
c. It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the
same VLAN except for the incoming interface.
d. It compares the destination IP address to the
destination MAC address.
e. It compares the frame's incoming interface to the
source MAC entry in the MAC address table.

A. A switch compares the destination MAC address to the MAC address table. If a matching entry is found, the switch forwards the frame out the appropriate interface. If no matching entry is found, the switch floods the frame.

Which of the following statements describes part of
the process of how a LAN switch decides to
forward a frame destined for a broadcast MAC
address?
a. It compares the unicast destination address to the
bridging, or MAC address, table.
b. It compares the unicast source address to the
bridging, or MAC address, table.
c. It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the
same VLAN except for the incoming interface.
d. It compares the destination IP address to the
destination MAC address.
e. It compares the frame's incoming interface to the
source MAC entry in the MAC address table.

C. A switch floods broadcast frames, multicast frames (if no multicast optimizations are enabled), and unknown unicast destination frames (frames whose destination MAC address is not in the MAC address table).

Which of the following statements best describes
what a switch does with a frame destined for an
unknown unicast address?
a. It forwards out all interfaces in the same VLAN
except for the incoming interface.
b. It forwards the frame out the one interface
identified by the matching entry in the MAC
address table.
c. It compares the destination IP address to the
destination MAC address.
d. It compares the frame's incoming interface to the
source MAC entry in the MAC address table.

A. A switch floods broadcast frames, multicast frames (if no multicast optimizations are enabled), and unknown unicast destination frames (frames
whose destination MAC address is not in the MAC address table).

Which of the following comparisons does a switch
make when deciding whether a new MAC address
should be added to its MAC address table?
a. It compares the unicast destination address to the
bridging, or MAC address, table.
b. It compares the unicast source address to the
bridging, or MAC address, table.
c. It compares the VLAN ID to the bridging, or
MAC address, table.
d. It compares the destination IP address's ARP
cache entry to the bridging, or MAC address,
table.

B. Switches need to learn the location of each MAC address used in the LAN relative to that local switch. When a switch receives a frame, the source MAC identifies the sender. The interface in which the frame arrives identifies the local switch
interface closest to that node in the LAN topology.

A Cisco Catalyst switch has 24 10/100 ports,
numbered 0/1 through 0/24. Ten PCs connect to the
ten lowest numbered port, with those PCs working
and sending data over the network. The other ports
are not connected to any device. Which of the
following answers lists facts displayed by the show
interfaces status command?
a. Port Ethernet 0/1 is in a connected state.
b. Port Fast Ethernet 0/11 is in a connected state.
c. Port Fast Ethernet 0/5 is in a connected state.
d. Port Ethernet 0/15 is in a notconnected state.

C. The show interfaces status command lists one
line of output per interface. Cisco Catalyst switches name the type of interface based on the fastest speed of the interface, so 10/100 interfaces would be Fast Ethernet. With a working connection, ports from FastEthernet 0/1 through 0/10 would be listed in a connected state, while the rest would be listed in a notconnected state.

Consider the following output from a Cisco Catalyst
switch:

SW1# show mac address-table dynamic
Mac Address Table
-------------------------------------------
Vlan Mac Address Type Ports
---- ----------- -------- -----
1 02AA.AAAA.AAAA DYNAMIC Gi0/1
1 02BB.BBBB.BBBB DYNAMIC Gi0/2
1 02CC.CCCC.CCCC DYNAMIC Gi0/3
Total Mac Addresses for this criterion: 3

Which of the following answers are true about this
switch?
a. The output proves that port Gi0/2 connects
directly to a device that uses address
02BB.BBBB.BBBB.
b. The switch has learned three MAC addresses
since the switch powered on.
c. The three listed MAC addresses were learned
based on the destination MAC address of frames
forwarded by the switch.
d. 02CC.CCCC.CCCC was learned from the source
MAC address of a frame that entered port Gi0/3.

D. For the correct answer, each entry lists the learned MAC address. By definition, dynamically learned MAC addresses are learned by looking at the source MAC address of received frames. (That
fact rules out one of the incorrect answers as well.)
The show mac address-table dynamic command lists the current list of MAC table entries, with three known entries at the point at which the command output was gathered. The counter in the last line of output lists the number of current entries, not the total number of learned MAC addresses since the last reboot. For instance, the switch could have learned other MAC addresses whose entries timed out from the MAC address table. Finally, the answer that claims that port Gi0/2
connects directly to a device with a particular MAC address may or may not be true. That port could connect to another switch, and another, and so on, with one of those switches connecting to the device that uses the listed MAC address.

What does the "login" command do?

Tells IOS to enable the use of a simple
shared password (with no username) on this
line (console or vty), so that the switch asks
the user for a password

what does the "Password (password value)" command do?

Defines the actual password used on the console or vty

What are the steps necessary to create a simple console and vty password?

What are the steps necessary to create a username and password for the console and telnet users?

Which commands need to be ran to setup SSH on a switch?

Which commands can be ran to:
1. support both telnet and SSH
2. support neither ssh or telnet
3. support only telnet
4. support only SSH

1. transport input all or transport input telnet
ssh: Support both Telnet and SSH
2. transport input none: Support neither
3. transport input telnet: Support only Telnet
4. transport input ssh: Support only SSH

What does the "show ip ssh" command do?

lists status information about the SSH server itself

What does the "show ssh" command do?

lists information about each SSH client currently connected into the switch

Which commands are needed to configure an IP address for a switch?

Which commands are necessary to tell a switch to use DHCP for it's IP address?

What do the "show history", "terminal history size x" and "history size x" commands do?

What commands are ran to disable and enable logging messages while logged into the console?

no logging console
logging console

What command is ran to disable your switch from trying to resolve host names into IP addresses?

Imagine that you have configured the enable secret
command, followed by the enable password
command, from the console. You log out of the
switch and log back in at the console. Which
command defines the password that you had to enter
to access privileged mode?
a. enable password
b. enable secret
c. Neither
d. The password command, if it is configured

B. If both commands are configured, IOS accepts only the password as configured in the enable secret command.

An engineer wants to set up simple password
protection with no usernames for some switches in a
lab, for the purpose of keeping curious co-workers
from logging into the lab switches from their desktop
PCs. Which of the following commands would be a
useful part of that configuration?
a. A login vty mode subcommand
b. A password password console subcommand
c. A login local vty subcommand
d. A transport input ssh vty subcommand

A. To answer this question, it might be best to first think of the complete configuration, and then find any answers that match the configuration. The commands, in vty line configuration mode, would be password password and login. Only one answer
lists a vty subcommand that is one of these two commands.
Of note in the incorrect answers:
One answer mentions console subcommands. The console does not define what happens when remote users log in; those details sit in the vty line
configuration. One answer mentions the login local command; this command means that the switch should use the local list of configured usernames/passwords. The question stated that the engineer wanted to use passwords only, with no usernames.
One answer mentions the transport input ssh command, which, by omitting the telnet keyword, disables Telnet. While that command can be useful, SSH does not work when using passwords only;
SSH requires both a username and a password. So, by disabling Telnet (and allowing SSH only), the configuration would allow no one to remotely log in to the swith

An engineer had formerly configured a Cisco 2960
switch to allow Telnet access so that the switch
expected a password of mypassword from the
Telnet user. The engineer then changed the
configuration to support Secure Shell. Which of the
following commands could have been part of the
new configuration? (Choose two answers.)
a. A username name secret password vty mode
subcommand
b. A username name secret password global
configuration command
c. A login local vty mode subcommand
d. A transport input ssh global configuration
command

B and C. SSH requires the use of usernames in addition to a password. Using the username global command would be one way to define usernames (and matching passwords) to support SSH. The vty
lines would also need to be configured to require the use of usernames, with the login local vty subcommand being one such option. The transport input ssh command could be part of a meaningful
configuration, but it is not a global configuration command (as claimed in one wrong answer). Likewise, one answer refers to the username command as a command in vty config mode, which is also the wrong mode.

An engineer's desktop PC connects to a switch at
the main site. A router at the main site connects to
each branch office through a serial link, with one
small router and switch at each branch. Which of the
following commands must be configured on the
branch office switches, in the listed configuration
mode, to allow the engineer to telnet to the branch
office switches? (Choose three answers.)
a. The ip address command in interface
configuration mode
b. The ip address command in global configuration
mode
c. The ip default-gateway command in VLAN
configuration mode
d. The ip default-gateway command in global
configuration mode
e. The password command in console line
configuration mode
f. The password command in vty line configuration
mode

A, D, and F. To allow access through Telnet, the switch must have password security enabled, at a minimum using the password vty line configuration subcommand. In addition, the switch needs an IP
address (configured under one VLAN interface) and a default gateway when the switch needs to communicate with hosts in a different subnet.

A Layer 2 switch configuration places all its
physical ports into VLAN 2. The IP addressing plan
shows that address 172.16.2.250 (with mask
255.255.255.0) is reserved for use by this new LAN
switch, and that 172.16.2.254 is already configured
on the router connected to that same VLAN. The
switch needs to support SSH connections into the
switch from any subnet in the network. Which of the
following commands are part of the required
configuration in this case? (Choose two answers.)
a. The ip address 172.16.2.250 255.255.255.0
command in interface vlan 1 configuration mode.
b. The ip address 172.16.2.250 255.255.255.0
command in interface vlan 2 configuration mode.
c. The ip default-gateway 172.16.2.254 command
in global configuration mode.
d. The switch cannot support SSH because all its
ports connect to VLAN 2, and the IP address must
be configured on interface VLAN 1.

B and C. To all SSH or Telnet access, a switch must have a correct IP configuration. That includes the configuration of a correct IP address and mask on a VLAN interface. That VLAN interface then must have a path out of the switch via ports assigned to
that VLAN. In this case, with all ports assigned to VLAN 2, the switch must use interface VLAN 2 (using the interface vlan 2 configuration command). To meet the requirement to support login from hosts outside the local subnet, the switch must configure a correct default gateway setting with the ip defaultgateway 172.16.2.254 global command in this case.

Which of the following line subcommands tells a
switch to wait until a show command's output has
completed before displaying log messages on the
screen?
a. logging synchronous
b. no ip domain-lookup
c. exec-timeout 0 0
d. history size 15

A. The logging synchronous line subcommand synchronizes log message display with other command output so the log message does not interrupt a show command's output. The no ip domain-lookup command is not a line subcommand. The other two incorrect answers are line subcommands but do not configure the function listed in the question.

What autonegotiation fails in Cisco switches, what are the rules?

Speed: Sense the speed (without using
autonegotiation), but if that fails, use the IEEE default (slowest supported speed, often 10 Mbps). Duplex: Use the IEEE defaults: If speed = 10 or 100, use half duplex; otherwise, use full duplex.

What are the steps required to enable port security?

Step 1. Make the switch interface either a static access or trunk interface using the switchport mode access or the switchport mode trunk interface subcommands, respectively.
Step 2. Enable port security using the switchport portsecurity interface subcommand.
Step 3. (Optional) Override the default maximum number of allowed MAC addresses associated with the interface (1) by using the switchport port-security maximum number interface subcommand.
Step 4. (Optional) Override the default action to take upon a security violation (shutdown) using the switchport port-security violation {protect | restrict | shutdown} interface subcommand.
Step 5. (Optional) Predefine any allowed source MAC addresses for this interface using the switchport port-security mac-address mac-address command. Use the command multiple times to define more than one MAC address.
Step 6. (Optional) Tell the switch to "sticky learn" dynamically learned MAC addresses with the switchport port-security mac-address sticky interface subcommand.

What does the "show port-security interface" command do?

lists the configuration settings for port security on an interface, plus it lists several important facts about the current operation of port security, including information about any security violations

What command do you use to protect, restrict, or shutdown a port for port security?

switchport port-security violation
{protect | restrict | shutdown}

What are the actions taken when port security is enabled for either protect, restrict or shutdown?

What does the "show mac address-table secure" command do?

Lists MAC addresses associated with ports that use port security

What does the command "show mac address-table static" do?

Lists MAC addresses associated with ports that use port security, as well as any other statically defined
MAC addresses

Which of the following describes a way to disable
IEEE standard autonegotiation on a 10/100 port on a
Cisco switch?
a. Configure the negotiate disable interface
subcommand
b. Configure the no negotiate interface
subcommand
c. Configure the speed 100 interface subcommand
d. Configure the duplex half interface subcommand
e. Configure the duplex full interface subcommand
f. Configure the speed 100 and duplex full interface
subcommands

F. Cisco switches do not have a command to disable autonegotiation of speed and duplex. Instead, a switch port that has both speed and duplex configured disables autonegotiation.

In which of the following modes of the CLI could
you configure the duplex setting for interface Fast
Ethernet 0/5?
a. User mode
b. Enable mode
c. Global configuration mode
d. VLAN mode
e. Interface configuration mode

E. Cisco switches can be configured for speed (with the speed command) and duplex (with the duplex command) in interface configuration mode.

A Cisco Catalyst switch connects with its
Gigabit0/1 port to an end user's PC. The end user,
thinking the user is helping, manually sets the PC's
OS to use a speed of 1000 Mbps and to use full
duplex, and disables the use of autonegotiation. The
switch's G0/1 port has default settings for speed and
duplex. What speed and duplex settings will the
switch decide to use? (Choose two answers.)
a. Full duplex
b. Half duplex
c. 10 Mbps
d. 1000 Mbps

A and D. The IEEE autonegotiation rules dictate that if a device attempts autonegotiation but the other side does not participate, use the slowest speed it supports. However, Cisco switches override that logic, instead sampling the electrical signal to detect the speed used by the connected device, so the switch will operate at 1000 Mbps. The switch uses the IEEE default setting for duplex based on the speed, and the IEEE default for duplex when using 1000 Mbps is to use full duplex. So in this case, the switch will match both the speed and the duplex setting made on the PC.

Which of the following is required when
configuring port security with sticky learning?
a. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC
addresses on the interface with the switchport
port-security maximum interface subcommand.
b. Enabling port security with the switchport portsecurity
interface subcommand.
c. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses
using the switchport port-security mac-address
interface subcommand.
d. All the other answers list required commands.

B. The setting for the maximum number of MAC addresses has a default of 1, so the switchport portsecurity maximum command does not have to be configured. With sticky learning, you do not need to predefine the specific MAC addresses either. However, you must enable port security, which requires the switchport port-security interface subcommand.

A switch's port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled
with port security. The configuration sets the
violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the
port security policy enters the interface, followed by
a frame that does not. Which of the following
answers correctly describe what happens in this
scenario? (Choose two answers.)
a. The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled
state when the first frame arrives.
b. The switch generates syslog messages about the
violating traffic for the first frame.
c. The switch increments the violation counter for
Gi0/1 by 1.
d. The switch discards both the first and second
frame.

B and C. First, about the two incorrect answers: In restrict mode, the arrival of a frame that violates the port security policy does not cause the switch to put the interface into err-disabled state. It does cause the switch to discard any frames that violate the policy, but it leaves the interface up, and does not discard frames that do not violate the security policy, like the second frame that arrives.
Regarding the two correct answers, a port in port security restrict does cause the switch to issue log messages for a violating frame, send SNMP traps about that same event (if SNMP is configured), and
increment the counter of violating frames.

In what modes can you type the command show MAC address table and expect to get a response with MAC table entries?

Explanation. The command "show mac address-table" can be executed from the User or the Enable mode.

In which of the following modes of the command line interface CLI could you issue the command reload to reboot the switch?

In which of the following modes of the CLI could you issue the command reload to reboot the switch? B (Enable mode) .

Which of the following is a difference between Telnet and SSH as supported by a Cisco switch?

SSH encrypts the entire communication while Telnet encrypts nothing. SSH encrypts only user login passwords while Telnet encrypts nothing. SSH encrypts all the communication while Telnet encrypts only the user name and password for login. SSH and Telnet provide the same function, the only difference is the port number.

What type of switch memory is used to store the configuration used by the switch when it is up and working group of answer choices RAM ROM Flash Nvram?

Explanation. The running configuration is stored in the RAM (Random Access Memory).